Axis & Allies .org Forums
    • Home
    • Categories
    • Recent
    • Popular
    • Users
    • Register
    • Login
    1. Home
    2. RedIndian
    3. Best
    • Profile
    • Following 0
    • Followers 0
    • Topics 1
    • Posts 22
    • Best 1
    • Controversial 0
    • Groups 0

    Best posts made by RedIndian

    • RE: Some couple of questions

      Ok here are another 3 :D

      1. Convoy:

      Example:
      India captures French-Indo-China from Japan. Japan has surface warships in seazone 36. So is there a convoy-disruption taking place by the collect income phase of the Indian player (or GB Pacific)? Or not, 'cause it has been captured in this turn. So it is too early for taking this step?

      In general: If you take control of an enemy territory (with min value of 1) that is adjacent to a seazone , that has a convoy symbol and it contains surface warships of your opponent, will there be a convoy disruption by the collect income phase of the player which just captured this territory in this turn?

      1. USA : (US in first 3 rounds when not at war)

      Beside the “No-China-Rule”
      Are any ships and airplanes of the US allowed to go through seazones which are adjacent to Japan controlled islands? Yes, aren’t they? Unless they don’t park there/ end the movment adjacent to a Japan controlled island or territory, right?

      1. USSR (first 3 rounds when not at war)

      Is the USSR-player allowed to move landtroops into Northwest Persia during his nom-combat-move when he is neutral/not at war?
      No, 'cause as a neutral nation, he is only allowed to do at war, right? (Distinction between Europe & Pacific map)

      In general: Is any nation allowed to take controll of a friendly neutral territory in his non-combat-move?
      No! Only if this nation is in a state of war, right?

      posted in Axis & Allies Global 1940
      RedIndianR
      RedIndian
    • 1 / 1