In the British reference sheet, it states that Great Britain may declare war on an Axis power if that nation has declared war on any other nation during the game. Does this include the Axis power in question being at war at all, even if it was the opposing nation that declared war first?

Here’s the scenario in our game: Italy has never declared war on another power. The USSR has just declared war on Italy, and now Great Britain wants to use that as justification for attacking Italy. Is this allowed? Or does Italy need to be the one to make the declaration of war?

@hbg-gw-enthusiast Thank you for clarifying, I can understand now that this scenario has been put into perspective! I have a few follow up questions:

1. Does the moving player’s intent need to be consistent throughout their entire movement phase (i.e. The British fleet moves into a sea zone containing Japanese ships, the screening force is required to conduct combat in order to proceed, then the amphibious assault occurs in the next sea zone), or can they move through a Japanese-occupied sea zone peacefully, only to change intent and immediately declare war and conduct combat in the next sea zone all within a single turn?

2. Does the make up of an amphibious force (deciding whether each ship is screening or bombarding) have to be established by the moving player upon departure, or are they allowed to make changes to their ship’s roles on their next turn if it takes more than one turn to reach their destination? And does a change in intent determine one’s ability to make that decision?

3. If a player makes any act provoking a declaration of war during their combat movement or conduct combat phase, are that player’s ships automatically forced into combat with enemy ships they share a sea zone with, or are they able to leave the zone without engaging in battle (as was the case in 1940 2nd edition)? Furthermore, if the player does decide to remain in the sea zone and conduct combat, are their ships not allowed to retreat since they started in the same zone that the battle is taking place?

If a nation begins moving a naval force intended for an amphibious assault while they’re at peace, is it automatically assumed to be a declaration of war for the purpose of determining peacetime income increases? For example, if a British landing force departs during the combat movement phase with the intention of landing units in Japan before either side has declared war, does this mean Japan is allowed intercept the invasion fleet without triggering USA’s 5 D12 worth of peacetime income increase? Or does Japan have to declare war first in order intercept and attack the British fleet? I don’t find it feasible that a nation can’t deal with an invasion headed their way without having to make the unprovoked declaration of war.