Posts made by McX

McX · Jul 20, 2015, 12:51 PM

I don’t usually go heavy navy purchases as the CP until Russia falls. Once I have that Russian money and $6 from Moscow every turn then Germany can build a navy to challenge the Allies enough to force UK to buy ships, weakening its position in Africa and the Middle East and keeping its infantry out of mainland Europe.

If it gets to the point where AH or Ottomans can gain naval supremacy in the Mediterranean, the game is just about over, in my experience.

McX · Jul 18, 2015, 4:46 PM

Good deal. Thanks

McX · Jul 16, 2015, 9:40 PM

Much obliged. So, if Moscow is contested and hasn’t yet fallen, it draws income. After it is conquered, it loses IPCs. If contested thereafter, it doesn’t draw income until liberated. It follows then, that an ally such as the US can take control of a Russian territory if it captures one from the CP, while Moscow is contested but not liberated, yes?

McX · Jul 16, 2015, 8:08 PM

Hi, got an in-game question:

Germany took Moscow and received Russia’s IPCs. On its turn, Britain attacks the Germans in Moscow and now the territory is contested. Subsequently, neither the Ottomans or the Austrians enter Moscow, and now it’s Russia’s turn again. Do they collect income for the territories not controlled by the Central Powers at this point, even though Moscow is contested (In our case it would be 5, as Finland, Karelia and Kazakhstan are still Allied-controlled)? Also, if Germany attacks again, will it once again take Russia’s income without them ever having had a chance to spend the IPCs? It seems to me that in this case Russia would receive income, but my opponent points out that the rulebook says the capital has to be “liberated” before it does.

Thanks!

McX · May 31, 2015, 2:55 AM

Thanks fellas!

McX · May 30, 2015, 9:04 PM

Hi,

Two questions regarding naval mines:

Germany has two infantry in Finland and marches them down to an empty Karelia and takes control. At the same time it transports two infantry from Berlin to Livonia. Does Russia get to roll for mines against the transport being that the minefield is adjacent to Karelia which just came under Axis control?

Question 2: The US, still neutral, moves into a sea zone with an Axis naval base. Are mines rolled while it’s still out of the war? My inclination is to think not, but my opponent said “well how do the mines know it’s not an enemy ship?” So here we are.

Thanks

McX · Apr 30, 2015, 5:24 PM

Good deal. Yeah after a few clunky games where I was looking at the rulebook every other turn I think we have it figured out. Really enjoy the contested territory mechanism. Cheers

McX · Apr 30, 2015, 3:51 AM

Thanks again Wittmann!

McX · Apr 29, 2015, 7:39 PM

Can transports beginning their turn in a hostile sea zone load units and move out, or just move out? Thanks

McX · Mar 28, 2015, 7:11 PM

Great - thanks

McX · Mar 28, 2015, 6:25 PM

For purposes of determining the number of bombarding battleships in an amphibious assault, do you count the offloading units killed by the defending player’s artillery first strike?

For example, Britain has 4 battleships and is offloading 4 land units into Kiel; Germany has one infantry and four artillery in Kiel. German artillery get two hits on the pre-emptive strike, leaving me now with two British land units left before the actual land combat. Does that mean only two battleships bombard or can all four still? Thanks.

McX · Jan 14, 2015, 3:07 PM

Thanks for the quick response Wittmann!

McX · Jan 14, 2015, 2:50 PM

So say Britain loads up transport from London and it and a battleship amphibiously assault Kiel from SZ 10 (no sea battle - German navy is gone). After they go through the minefields unscathed they conduct the land combat with a battleship support shot, the assault is unsuccessful and Germany retains control of Kiel. Next Britain turn, the transport goes back to London, picks up a couple more guys and returns to SZ 10 while the BB stays put. I understand the transport has to contend with the mines again, but does the battleship, which didn’t move? (The rulebook says “move into or through” I don’t know if staying put counts).

Similarly, say there was a naval battle in SZ 10 (no amphib assault this time). After mines and one round of combat the British player chooses to end it with a wounded battleship off Kiel while the Germans survived other naval units. On the next British turn, if the German boats didn’t attack the wounded battleship, does it have to face mines again? Same question more or less, just different circumstances.

Finally, when rolling for mines, the owner of the mines calls out the boats - “this is for the cruiser, this is for the BB, etc.” Does he do this for individual transports? For example the US brings over five transports, and four of them contain only infantry and one contains a fighter and tank. Would the mine owner roll four dice and then one in that case? Or does he roll five together and the owner of the transports chooses which ones die?

Thanks

McX · Dec 31, 2014, 9:47 PM

Thanks!

McX · Dec 31, 2014, 8:02 PM

First time playing this game - I’ve seen similar questions on the forum but wanted to be sure cause it doesn’t seem intuitive to me.

Russia starts with two cruisers in SZ 21 (Black Sea) and Ottomans with two cruisers in SZ 20 (Turkish straits). I understand you can move surface warships into a SZ containing enemy units, then choose to attack them or not. So Russia could move its two cruisers into SZ 20 on its first turn, but they choose to not conduct combat. Then the Ottomans have the choice to attack the cruisers or not, and let’s say they refrain from attacking and leave the cruisers there. On Russia’s turn 2, they move the cruisers from SZ 20 to SZ 19, which is essentially using two turns to move through a hostile sea zone without combat. That’s all legal?

Thanks

McX · Nov 19, 2014, 7:34 PM

It does - thanks guys!

McX · Nov 18, 2014, 3:22 PM

Hi there, going to finally pick this one up now that the price has dropped. I understand it doesn’t come with enough chips and German infantry - can someone tell me what else I need to buy from a third party to make the set complete/playable, or is that it?

Thanks!

McX · Oct 10, 2014, 5:28 PM

It’s all good - after reading a few posts over the last couple years, I knew the “I don’t bid” bit goes against the dogma. But if you bid, you usually get what? A Russian bomber or four British infantry? Does that really impact the war so much more than sound strategy (and a bit of luck)? I think no. But that’s just the experience I’ve had playing over the years, with different groups and in different cities - not that the Allies dominate, but hold their own, and the good US player should do what the US did in real life, turn the tide of the war from it’s lowest point and give the Allies a collective shot in the arm. Right? Cause whether or not the US comes into the war right away as a result of a Pearl Harbor or stays neutral for the first couple rounds, the Allies get smashed from the get go - UK gets its cash convoyed and bombed, Russians are getting massacred, China usually gets close to elimination or gets eliminated fairly quick, India’s threatened right away and everything looks horrible. Then the US player comes in, and a good one should even it up somewhat. The strategy comes from how well the US player is a factor once its economy is unleashed - how well it plans with the other allies and allocates its resources in protecting its transports and getting a foothold somewhere.

McX · Oct 9, 2014, 7:54 PM

Haha no problem. I wouldn’t tolerate slacking!

McX · Oct 9, 2014, 5:11 PM

Cool, thanks. I’ll check it out, I’m eager to get blasted by the Axis.

Cheers

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