Posts made by leobarron2000

Thanks

Question - if Russian and UK ships are sharing a sea zone, and the Germans attack the Brit ships, can the British players use the Russian ships in defense IF Germany has NOT gone to war with Russia?

I thought transports were automatic hits. Holy cow we’ve playing that wrong.

Ok. Since I asked the question the answer is the fighter sinks one transport, the other transport can escape but cannot do the amphibious assault because the presence of one fighter means it is still a contested sea zone. Correct?

All,

I had a specific question, concerning the amphibious assault and scramble. Let’s say Great Britain decides to conduct an amphibious assault on Norway and Denmark, which means their transports must enter sea space 112. In this case, they are unescorted - no submarines, no warships, just transports with men. The Germans have a single fighter in W. Germany with their Air Base. Can that fighter scramble and sink the unescorted transports in Sea Space 112 after the amphibious assault has been declared since you have to wait scramble until your opponent has declared all his combat moves? Thank you again.

Okay cool. Thanks. We’re still playing the 1st edition rules where Italy goes before the US BTW, but the point is still the same. Thank you again. That’s what I thought

Let’s say the German have placed 2 aircraft carriers in the sea zone opposite Gibraltar, sharing the sea zone with a small US fleet (The Germans built the carriers there because they had captured Spain and built a minor there.) Later that turn, the Italians will attack the US fleet there with 2 x Fighters and 2 x TACs, landing on the German carriers. When the Italian aircraft attack, can the German carriers take damage even though Germany is not attacking? I would argue that since Germany is not attacking, the carriers cannot take hits, which is similar to the destroyer rule where an attacking nation cannot use an Allied nation destroyer in sea zone when it is attacking subs aka US subs cannot use a UK Destroyer to attack German subs even if they are in the same sea zone. I know you can use all units in a sea zone if you are defending but that’s different. Is that the right interpretation?

Yeah, it would be. This is the last time we’re playing the old set. We start playing the 2nd Global next. I’m looking forward to a much weaker US and a much stronger Germany.

Thanks. So this was an error in the first edition like Japan not getting its strategic bonus if Italy captured India.

Gentlemen

I’ve been looking for the answer on this one, but in the original Global 1940 rules, it reads that Russia receives her 5 IPC bonus if she’s at war - but it doesn’t say with whom. To me that means if Japan attacks Russia, but Germany does not, then Russia still gets her 5 IPC bonus. Is that a typo? Remember this is the original rule set - not Alpha 3.

Leo

Thanks.

Gentlemen

For the British objectives in India, the rules state this:

UK.3 — Collect 5 IPCs when the UK and ANZAC control all of their original territories.

Does that mean all original territories, including those in Europe and Africa, or is just the territories on the Pacific side of the board?

Thanks. Yes I saw in the Alpha 3 rules they changed so that if Italy or Germany captures India then Japan will still get the bonus.

BTW, it says for the global advantages that if the Axis controlled Stalingrad, etc, then Germany would get 5 IPCs, even if Italy captured it. However for British India, if Germany captures it do the Japanese get their strategic bonus for captured British capital. The rules say it has to be Japan, but we were wondering if that was a typo since in the other  sections it’s a Axis power for places like Stalingrad, Egypt, etc.

Thanks. That’s good to know. BTW, it says for the global advantages that if the Axis controlled Stalingrad, etc, then Germany would get 5 IPCs, even if Italy captured it. However for British India, if Germany captures it do the Japanese get their strategic bonus for captured British capital. The rules say it has to be Japan, but we were wondering if that was a typo since in the other  sections it’s a Axis power for places like Stalingrad, Egypt, etc.

I’ve been trying to figure this one. If France falls, and the US recaptures Indochina, can the US build a minor complex in Indochina, even though France is still occupied by the Germans?

Thanks. That’s what I thought. Playing the Americans is tough. I seem to lost on Turn 5 or 6. I guess I stink.

I just started playing the game, and I came upon a question about supplies. If the Germans force all the units in a particular hex to retreat except for the supplies, can those units that retreated still use those supplies since the Germans don’t officially commandeer them until the final phase after they move into the hex. I know the Allies can’t use the trucks, but is it the same for the supplies that were left behind?

I see your point. Thanks for the clarification. I appreciate it, and we love the game.

Ok - still that seems odd. In my case - Australia took those territories originally - (Sumatra, Java, etc.) Hence, if a British fleet recaptured them from the Japanese, but India was still under Japanese control, doesn’t that seem kind of unfair for Britain not to gain that money since they weren’t Indian UK controlled in the first place?. I mean, if the US captured those islands, the US gets the money and can spend it wherever it wants. I don’t know - it seems a little screwy to me.