Posts made by leobarron2000

Thanks again!

Thanks. That’s what I thought. If you declare an amphibious invasion, you have to go through with it.

All

If someone conducts an amphibious and uses cruisers for an offshore bombardment, and then the defender scrambles one fighter to erase the offshore bombardment, does the attacker still need to land his troops after the defending fighter is shot down or can he back off. For example, let’s say the Americans want to land on Gibraltar with 4 Infantry and 4 Artillery, supported by 5 cruisers. The Italians have built an airbase there and have six infantry and 3 fighters defending there. The Italians sacrifice one fighter to negate the offshore bombardment, will the the US still have to land the 4 infantry and 4 artillery after the SZ is cleared or can they retreat before the invasion?

Got it. Makes sense. Thank you!

Got a couple of questions.

First, if the US attempts an amphibious invasion of a territory, let’s say Gibraltar, which now has an Axis Airbase, and the Axis player scrambles three fighters to fight it, does that fix all the American warships in SZ 91? For example, if there are US Subs in that sea zone, since the zone was in combat, does that mean the subs cannot conduct a non-combat move later that turn?

Second, why can’t fighters that scramble to defeat an amphibious invasion also participate in the subsequent land battle? Is that because they land during the non-combat phase and therefore cannot participate in activity on land?

Thank you!

Makes sense. Thanks for the clarification.

All

Crazy Scenario. Let’s say I have a loaded Japanese transport and a sub in the SZ off of Kwantung (SZ20). I own the naval base at Kwantung. I move the sub and the TPT thru SZ 36 and into SZ 37. In SZ 37, there’s a Australian sub, but since I have a sub with my TPT, I can ignore it. I then conduct an amphibious assault on Shan State. Can the sub that escorted the TPT, since it did not have to conduct a sea battle, then battle Australian warships in SZ 42, Java, in the same turn?

Thank you. I was tracking the TPT and sub rules in regards to Kamikaze.

I think I know the answer to this but my friend wanted me to ask. He wants to invade the Phillipines, but does not want to trigger Japan’s kamikaze rule since he is the US player. He says that he is declaring his amphibious assault from SZ 42, and then picking up stuff from Java to invade the Phillipines. He says that should not trigger kamikaze since he is declaring it from another SZ and not SZ 35 (Phillipines). I told him that’s balderdash since it doesn’t matter where he starts his combat movement. If he’s invading the Phillipines, he ends up in SZ 35, and therefore triggers kamikaze. Who is correct? Me or my friend? Thank you again.

That’s what I thought

Let’s say I have 3 subs, 4 fighters, and 3 bombers attacking a sub, 3 destroyers, and 3 fighters. Since I’m attacking BUT do not have a destroyer, does it mean the defending player CANNOT use his one sub as a casualty?

Wish I could. It’s in the Atlantic!

Interesting. I thought it had to be a surface warship since subs can be ignored.

Yes,“taking” as in liberating.

If the US had subs with their transports, those do not count as escorts since they are not surface warships and therefore, it still means the US cannot perform an amphibious assault since there is a German sub in the zone? Correct?

Thank you!

Just need clarification

I have a German sub off of Gibraltar. The US moves 2 x Transports into the zone to conduct a amphibious assault. Since the sub is there in the same zone as the Transports, and the transports ARE NOT escorted with a surface warship then the Transports cannot conduct an amphibious assault. Is that correct?

Also, if the US takes Gibraltar in a later turn, any US warships in the adjacent sea zones cannot use the Naval Base non-combat movement advantage of three zones until the next movement turn - aka not the same turn they captured the port of Gibraltar. Is that correct?

Thank you

Just want to confirm how the new AA guns are used. It says in the rulebook that the attacker chooses the casualties so if I hit attack a zone with 3 AA guns and I use 3 fighters, 5 bombers and 1 TAC bomber, then the defender only rolls 9 dice total. Moreover, I can choose the hits, so let’s say he rolls two hits, and I decide to take the hits on my fighters since they only attack at 3. Is that right?

Thanks everyone. This helped clear up stuff.

I have never used kamikaze because it never came up. However, with the new rules they seem more plausible.

1. If the US fleet moves into the sea of Japan on a noncombat move (aka for taking points off of Japan) then can the Japanese, on their move, use the Kamikazes as part of a larger attack?

2. Kamikazes happen before the rest of combat. Does that mean that if they are used against destroyers and destroy them, then all the Japanese submarines get a sneak attack against the other ships in the defending fleet?

3. Does that also mean if the kamikazes are used against aircraft carriers (who are on defense) then the defending player cannot scramble aircraft from the carrier to defend against other attacks if the carrier is damaged from the kamikazes?

Thanks