Posts made by JbuckBuddy

@generalhandgrenade I understand that but it also mentions if Nationalist Spain later aligns, they no longer get blue divisions in berlin. I didn’t see that for a Republican Spain, I just wanted to verify that if they align to the Commintern, Moscow would still get the International Brigades.

Is my assumption correct here?

It is clear if there is victory for Nationalist Spain, their “Blue Divisions” do not appear in Berlin in the case of alignment to Germany.

However I do not see the same when it comes to a Republican Spain victory. So even in the case of Rep. Spain aligning to the Commintern, the USSR would still receive an “International Brigade” in Moscow every turn for the rest of the game?

Just wanted to be sure, am I missing something?

Thanks.

Commonwealth can divy up dutch cash and/or wartime econ cash, but when should this be done? Upon receiving the IPPs or should the xtra just be set to the side and then divy it up when spending. If it is set to the side what happens if London falls, are the Dutch and wartime IPPs destroyed as well. Wasn’t sure what would make the most sense. Any thoughts, thanks.

I would say no cuz it is not mentioned on the Free France sheet, but that’s just how I have been playing.

I was curious about if Free France chooses to build a factory, can they only place in that factory now or can they still place militia, cav, inf, or mtn in any land zone they have possessed since start of turn, and only place all of the other units that become available out of the factory. It didn’t specifically mention whether once they build the factory if they are unable to place anywhere else after that. I suppose the same would apply to an evolved KMT or CCP.

If the soviets take Manchuria or Rehe, since they are considered Chinese Home Country, wouldn’t they have to hand it over to the CCP? This means that the soviets cant gain manchuria or rehe as tts to add to their worldwide communism VOs.

I am assuming the same would be true if the allies were to ever take a Chinese home country tt, they would be obligated to give them to the KMT.

@GeneralHandGrenade Ah I see, and yes i placed Le resistance in Paris upon liberation but the part I want to be clear on is if the other allied units have to vacate paris once vichy chooses to attack, or are they forced to withdraw only if vichy defeats the French forces. If there are no french units and only British or American units in a french land zone, is vichy able to move in, force a withdrawal and take it, or can they only attack french forces?

The reason i inquired is because the German player in my game is planning to attack Paris(US,British & French units occupy it) with Germany and Vichy if able. They would move on the same turn of course but not attack together, but say the german’s attack Paris and all the French units are killed(they are militia and AAA) leaving only British or American units, once vichy attacked would they be forced to vacate or would vichy be unable to move in since there are no French forces?

Wanted to be sure before I went ahead. Any help would be awesome. Thanks.

When Paris is liberated, it seems like it is possible for Vichy to attack Paris, or so my axis opponent believes.

On the Vichy Player Aid under Vichy Surrender it states:
If Vichy attacks a Free French land zone containing units not from Free France, these non Free French units do not participate in the combat and are moved to the nearest land zone in their possession.

Am I wrong in assuming that it is possible for Vichy to attack Paris once liberated and ignore any other allied units, making them withdraw no less? The only thing that makes me uncertain is the classification of Free France in the wording. I am hoping this means that once Paris is liberated, the minor power of Free France becomes the major power of “France” again, thus this rule would no longer apply to France. I am hoping my assumption is correct, any help or info would be appreciated. I just wanted to be sure. Thanks.

@insanehoshi i have been playing with all subs having target select on a 1. Now that u mention it tho, there doesn’t seem to be anything about it in the rules. This isn’t the only example, there is no mention of interception value for tac bombers. However the battleboard has the final say, apparently tacs can’t intercept which does make some sense as they excel in reg combat.

It would make some sense to have subs target select, however it doesn’t seem to happen very often.

Ccp gets income and the recruit roll I believe.

I can say as the UK that it can be difficult in the med to maneuver ur forces into an advantageous position while neutral, as a competent axis player will start the war with Italy the turn before germany makes its move in europe to avoid a taranto like attack of some kind from UK and to hopefully gain the upper hand in some way. Additionally Italy will most likely be close to having wartime economy at the outset of the war. What I’ve figured out is that in order to “lockdown” the med, you as UK will have to be prepared to lose something. But what that something is needs to not be BOATS. Egypt will likely be the target as gibraltar has the fort but never assume its impenetrable as all it takes is some bad dice on the 1st round to realize the vulnerability of a garrison. Aden and the west coast of gibraltar seem to be good staging points, however be careful with the fleet off gibraltar as Italy can always choose to force the strait, and all their subs can move freely through the strait anyway. Planes on corsica have a sweet range so watch out for that as well. The Italian fleet will be difficult to hit with air cover from corsica, northern Italy or both so ideally u will want to wait for them to shoot their shot and then engage after they leave the comfort of their air cover. It sounds easy enough but the trouble is usually the Italian player will only expose their fleet when they know they will be out of range of BBs or planes from one side of the med, or they know they will take either egypt to cut off ur boats from using the suez, or gibraltar forcing u to force the strait yourself. This leaves the UK player unable to bring all their proper force to bear on the Italian fleet. I like ur idea of having a 2 transport strike force on either side cuz that will allow u to take back Egypt or gibraltar quickly but be sure to have planes in range cuz they are both terrain tts meaning ur inf will be hitting on 1s. Priority should be to never allow Italy to take and hold either of these positions for more than a turn, or either of them at the same time, resulting in Spain aligning to germany. This happened in the game I am playing now and it makes life extremely difficult for the allies. I have since taken back gibraltar and egypt and sunk the Italian fleet but it was not without loss and a significant investment to boot. Had this coincided with Calcutta getting pressured or axis subs going to town on British shipping, I would have been looking at a commonwealth crumbling type scenario. Main thing is to keep the royal navy alive at all costs, and keep building planes and 1 or 2 marines a turn. Ur strategy does seem sound tho. Sorry if I rambled on there, just wanted to give my 2 cents.

@GeneralHandGrenade I understand the difference between control and alignment, but my question was regarding whether British or American planes could fly over vichy. I suppose my gut tells me that since they are neutral, British and US planes would be unable to fly over Vichy under any circumstances other than choosing to attack them?

The situation I’m faced with in the game I’m currently playing is that I have 3 fighters and a Tac at Gibraltar with longe range aircraft. I would like them to participate in an attack on Paris but the only possible way to do so would be flying over vichy. I wanted to know if it was possible to do this, if not then is it possible to attack vichy boats with the British to make them align to germany? I’m inclined to think no on the 2nd part since alignment usually happens at the end of the combat phase. Not sure tho.

Is it possible for an allied nation(not free france) to fly over vichy, I’m assuming it would be a declaration of war similar to forcing a strait resulting in them aligning to germany at the end of the combat phase. I understand that air units can’t fly over neutral nations or neutral canals but since vichy is a different type of minor neutral I figured it wouldn’t have these restrictions. Once again tho I am not sure. Any help or info would be appreciated. Thanks.

The rules say that the variable ending is on a d12, but the new QR card says it is a d6. I’ve always gone with the rules but wanted to make sure it ends on a d12. Any help or info would be appreciated. Thanks.

Would 3.3 in the rulebook mean for the KMT or CCP that if at least 3 territories with an IPP value are enemy occupied in China, then they would receive no VPs? Would hong kong be considered occupied if the FEC owned it? This makes it extremely difficult for either chinese faction to score any victory points. Would the objective cities count seperately from the NOs, as in if the KMT owned Nanking, could it be subtracted as a result of having enemy occupied territories worth at least 1 IPP like the NOs can? I am inclined to think the cities are awarded by alliance and not nation but i wanted to be sure. The same would apply to France/Free France(and Paris) if territories in France are still occupied, I am assuming. Any help or info would be appreciated, thanks.

In a city, could an airbase be strat bombed, or the port blockaded, or even a tank blitzing to surround the city, before the battle in the city takes place in the same turn in order to surround it? Or does the city need to be surrounded since the beginning of the turn for the minus 1 to take effect? Since strat bombing happens before combat and since the attacker is able to choose the order of battles, I would think so but wasn’t sure. Any help or info would be appreciated. Thanks.

Hmm must have had them mixed up.

@Noneshallpass Thanks, I was under the impression that scramble as defined in 8.6 was referring to the combat ability of up to 3 fighters to move to an adjacent zone and that the “scramble” in table 9-9 is referring to the interception of strategic or carpet bombing where they would participate at reduced values. I would agree that the fighters would have to choose whether to intercept or participate in regular combet. However the same problem you have mentioned still exists, what would happen to surviving interceptors if the tt is taken?

I’m playing a game as the allies where Spain has aligned to Germany after Italy managed eastern Egypt and Gibraltar. Have just landed in Castille and I have 3 heavy strategic bombers in britain and I was hoping to carpet bomb and move into Madrid this turn, as it is stacked with land units plus planes. I suppose if there are any surviving interceptors they should be able to move 1 to a friendly tt, similar to if a plane on an AC is unable to land because of the AC was damaged or destroyed. Or is that a rule in A&A G40 I’m thinking of? Not sure but I suppose that solution seems fair and would make sense.

@GeneralHandGrenade How would that work with carpet bombing in a territory that you are also making a combat move into, specifically if there are fighters in the defending territory or the attacking force. Would the fighters intercept or escort the bomber and then participate in the combat or would they have to choose one to participate in and be unable to do the other?

That’s what I was trying to say, but @Noneshallpass said it better. Thanks.

Provided that the nation’s national reference sheet does not restrict them from doing so(eg. “Once at war with a major power” or “any nation at war with a major power”), they may LL 1 military unit or half of the receiving nation’s current income in IPP’s to each nation. So yes you may LL to multiple nations in the same turn.

As for the blitz, I was unsure as well at first but I understood it as anything over 2 rounds of battle would make units capable of blitzing ineligible of doing so. The only exception I can think of would be if there was some sort of first strike hit closing out the battle, making the defender unable to shoot back and thus not being a full round, which is how I was playing at first until I realized that 1st strike only happens on the 1st round of combat and therefore that situation could never happen. I think a better way to have written it would have been “combat must have lasted 2 rounds or less”

Hope this helps.