Posts made by insaneHoshi

If a German navy moves to SZ 13, are they protected by the Danish straights?

I interpret as it blocking movement from SZ 13 to 15.

Only attacking (IE shooting at) submarines with Aircraft on Maritime Air Patrol (MAP) are affected by the advanced submarines improvement. Normally you can attack a submarine with a MAP aircraft paired with a destroyer, but a adv. sub. can only be attacked with the MAP aircraft.

Defending against an advanced submarine is unaffected. Escorting Ships and Aircraft on MAP are unaffected and act as normal.

@jbuckbuddy said in Vichy Fly Over:

The only thing that makes me uncertain is the classification of Free France in the wording. I am hoping this means that once Paris is liberated, the minor power of Free France becomes the major power of “France” again,

Yup

FF Player Aid:

“If Free French liberates Paris, it becomes a Major Power (effectively becomes France again)”

@noneshallpass Subs theoretically are the only naval units with target selection, but Tac bombers participate in naval combat too.

Do Subs get ‘Target Selection’? While the battleboards imply it, I can’t find anything in the main rulebook or player aids saying that they do.

I think the CCP player aid implies they get an income, and i think the player aid overrides the main book?

@GeneralHandGrenade Regarding Vichy Surrender: I think you have this incorrect. Vichy France only surrenders if South France falls, they dont actually care about Paris.

@JbuckBuddy said in Victory Objectives: Loss:

Would the objective cities count seperately from the NOs, as in if the KMT owned Nanking, could it be subtracted as a result of having enemy occupied territories worth at least 1 IPP like the NOs can? I am inclined to think the cities are awarded by alliance and not nation but i wanted to be sure. The same would apply to France/Free France(and Paris) if territories in France are still occupied, I am assuming. Any help or info would be

A couple points

1. The subtraction for VPs for occupied zones applies to Chinese Home Country, not continental china or any other definition.
2. FEC occupying FEC would not subtract KMP VPs as FEC and KMT could never be considered enemies. This also means I think that if at the end of the game KMT and CCP are still at truce, they are not considered enemies either.
3. I would also consider zones “occupied” by a surrendered japan to not be held by Enemies either, but this might be just personal on my part.

I would agree however that the rules as written seam to me that VPs for either chinese faction is very all or nothing; its going to be difficult for either faction to conquer some of the Japanese starting zones like Manchuria or Formosa as either faction.

For reference:

Enemy: Nations (and all their units, facilities and land zones) are enemies when they are at war with each other. (E.g. Germany and France are not “Enemies” until they are at war.

Two points

1. Airborne Inf. aren’t very effective attackers, attacking at 3/2. By the numbers a couple of militia is a sufficient garrison to probably win.

2. Using airbases to scramble into adjacent zones where an airborne assaults are taking place. You do however need one defending unit there though.

@AlphaAeffchen said in Ship movement in peacetime (36 scenario):

Are my assumptions correct?

I would say they are. I think there are two exceptions though, 1) the US’s movement being restricted by their current income, 2) You cant combat move vs a nation through a canal they own.

@Arsilon said in Surrounded Cities and What's up with Naval base?:

I think this confusion stems from confusing Blockaded and Surrounded. One could interpret surrounded as a single ship blocking a naval facility. However blockades are something specific to having 3 or more surface ships in that facility’s sea zone.

While I see no confusion with “A blockaded Naval Facility is considered surrounded,” a more exhaustive sentence could be “A blockaded Naval Facility does not prevent a city not counting as surrounded.”

@Chris_Henry

Besides all that, I’d think twice on your strategy of “England to manipulate the war in favour of the Comintern”. I only say that because, as the Allied player, the UK would potentially be taking a VP away from ally France. France has a VP of Eliminate Communism, which reads: “Score 1 victory objective if the Comintern does not Possess any land zone adjacent to French Home Country. A neutral Republican Spain counts as Comintern land zones.” So, if you help the Republican’s win, France would have Communists knocking on the back door!

Although there may be a good argument to declare war with France. Not for influencing the results of the Spanish civil war, but to move as many units to a conquered landzone, which will then become Free French once France falls. For example, if Catalonia was the last republican land zone, France could invade, and stalemate the end of the civil war, denying the 2 axis VPs and their free infantry per turn.

@sleipnersm38 I dont see how this would result in an atlantic gap, since there is no where on the atlantic line that is out of a seaplane’s MAP range.

And yes, it does sound like that PB4Y is massively over costed. On the other hand, the 1 IPC Blimp which acts like a 1 range seaplane (which sounds broken), might make up for it.

To be honest, it might just be a case of this expansion being poorly written as evidenced by over costed PB4Ys, severely under costed blimps (which technically cant move RAW).

@AlphaAeffchen They are still present on the individual nations sheets.

If I recall correctly:

A: 3 D:3 M:4 Cost: 7

@Chris_Henry said in China: Warlords-KMT-CCP:

Also, @insaneHoshi I had never considered the prospect of Japan simply declaring war on the KMT and not attacking. What an interesting idea to just blockade.

It is interesting, but a bit of a catch 22 though, as IIRC most allied nations would require China to be at war with a major power before LL. Plus it would open the Burma Road. Honnestly though if KMT hasnt declared war in 1938 to get that sweet sweet Burma road IPC, they have mad a misplay (or japan has evacuated Chinese home country of units for some reason)

@GuamSolo said in How is the balance in Global War 1936 Version 3:

When Germany takes Moscow in 2 rounds you just needed more units over all.

To prevent such a scenario, you also may want to consider, building a fortification in Moscow. Most likely that in order to take Moscow in 2 rounds Germany has to use their double impulse and/or Blitz into Moscow. Building a fort prevents blitzes and might give you enough time to rally your defenses ( and provide a good defence as well).

I think the latest version of the rule might have an error where they forgot to include it.

I’m positive that prior versions of the rules list the seaplane having a MAP range of 2 (which isnt increased by any sort of base or long range aircraft BTW)

The rules on the KMT sheet state: “An attack by a foreign country on a Warlord, CCP, or KMT, is considered an attack on all of China and causes all Warlords to Align with KMT. If a warlord is attacked by either Chinese faction, it and all its remaining land zones and units align to the other Chinese faction if unconquered by the end of the Combat Phase.”

So to answer your questions

What happens if the CCP attacks a Chinese Warlord (are they allowed to attack warlords?)? Is it correct if they attack one warlord that all warlords go to KMT?

No, an attack on a warlord by CCP/KMT causes the attacked warlord to align with the other Chinese power; Other warlords remain neutral. Remember aligning occurs after combat is resolved so only that warlord’s remaining unconquered land zones and units go to the other faction.

What happens if the KMT attacks the warlords. Do all of them become CCP?

Same as above, only the attacked warlord goes CCP at the end of the round if they have territory remaining.

What happens to the warlords if the CCP attack the KMT and vice versa?

Nothing, they dont care.

Am I correct to assume that all Warlords become KMT if Japan attacks KMT?

Yes. And keep in mind RAW states “Attacks” not declares war on. This means Japan could DOW KMT and just blockade them and not align all warlords. It also means that KMT can freely attack Japan and Japan being unable to counterattack without aligning the remaining warlords to the KMT.

What happens to CCP if Japan Attacks KMT or one of the Warlords?

They can sign a truce with the KMT if they wish. IMO they should do so, and if they dont have a border with the USSR yet, move units to a KMT region next to the boarder and then break the truce to get Lend Lease and their wartime bonus income.

Hope you enjoy your game!

They all share the limitation, so if the UK LL to France, Anzac cant LL to france.

@GuamSolo In my limited experience, I don’t really have any qualms about aiding the USSR, despite their inevitable betrayal. I think when it comes down to the final round and if the axis has been neutralized, the allies have a much easier capability to take VPs from the USSR than vice versa. In a recent game with GHG and Panzer King (documented on both their channels; check them out!) I was able to take approximately 4 - 5 VPs from the USSR by taking Vladivostok and Murmansk amphibiously. Plus I had an even chance at an airborne assault on the Donbas which would have taken an additional point if it did not fail.

One relevant example from this game to this current discussion was the USSR player was able to get Argentina aligned and Germany got a plane in aligned Peru. I made a deal with the USSR to attack this with his South American plane with the agreement that if his plane lived, i would LL a tank, but if it died I would LL a plane. Since his plane was stuck in South America contributing nothing to the eastern front, he agreed, rolled poorly and died and got a plane in Murmansk for his trouble.