English sea zone question

Spring 42 is pretty close to balanced.  0-3 to Allies would be the expected bid range.  Over at GTO, people play with preplaced Allied bids (from Russia 3 to UK6) but these extra units are not placed in critical locations, and are therefore less useful than a single infantry placed in Egypt or Karelia would be.

You have to wait a turn.

Blitzing is a combat move, where you blitz through an unoccupied territory and take it, either to engage in combat in an adjecent territory or to move (or return) to an adjecent friendly territory.

In your case your combat movement phase has ended, since you have already resolved combat in China. You can not take Sinkiang in this turn then, since it would be a combat move.

Well said Mr. Malachai… So here is the situation I present: Best 100 IPC navy for both Attack and Defense. The navy, after all, is intended to go up against another navy of equal size and strength. I guess you could attach an amphibious assault to it, but that would be irrelevant in this rule set since an amphibious assault would depend completely upon the success of the “navy” and would not participate in this battle.

I ask this question because this is the best ruleset to discuss Naval buys. I am probably still thinking in a Revised mindset (played this version just twice, and not the whole way through). I am curious because no more can you just stack Trannies with a capital ship or destroyer…

GG

Like Krieg wrote.

But tanks get lonely too.

Correct.

thanks for your help.

@Cuyahoga:

I see…

Now say that UK takes all their 34 IPC…

Then say the next German turn…they have no IPC on paper…so the don’t buy any new forces…they do their
combat turn…they take back Berlin…they move their IPC marker back up from 24 to 34…then they collect IPC…they record on paper they have 34 IPC ( which they hope they will have to spend on next turn).

Then the UK does their turn and they retake Berlin again…so are you saying once again they grab those 34 IPC ?

If that is so…wouldn’t Germany be digging them in a big hole as far as UK amassing a huge ammount of IPC?

This seems an unfair rule?

Am i still missing something?

opps , i made an error…when i said that on Germany’s first turn after losing their capital…that thay had no IPC on paper and thus could buy no new forces…that was an error on my part…because they can’t buy new forces when their capitalis occupied by the enemy…

Thanks for the quick reply!  :-)