@Krieghund:
@Vareel:
so I would get 1 ‘free’ combat move so to speak, then after my first combat move against Uk/Az/US I would be considered at war for all further combat moves? So for example, if the US had a destroyer in SZ 25, and I had a japan fleet in SZ 6 from which I moved 1 submarine into SZ 26 and use it to attack a US fleet in SZ 26, my battleship and transport in SZ 6 would then NOT be able to move to SZ 26 unless the US destroyer was destroyed because I am now at war. However, if I were to move the transport first it would be able to bypass the destroyer and I would be free to clear SZ 26 with airpower and allow my transport to land troops. If this is unclear just say and I will reword it.
No. All combat movements are simultaneous. It doesn’t matter which order you may them in. At any rate, a transport making an amphibious assault is still a combat movement, so it would not be able to bypass the destroyer.
@Stoney229:
@Krieghund:
@Vareel:
Do allied ships ‘block’ the movement of Japan boats before war is declared?
No. A sea zone is only hostile if it contains surface warships belonging to a power with which you are at war.
So and allied power can make a non-combat movement ending in a seazone containing surface warships belonging to an axis power (and vice versa) if war has not been declared between them?
Yes.
so , in effect, you cannot make a combat move without having already declared war, is that right?
can one make noncombat moves before declaring war, and then announce an attack on a convoy, thus declaring war after the noncombat move has been made?