If you capture or liberate a territory that has a damaged IC I assume that the IC remains in that damaged condition until whomever the owner is repairs it? correct?
many times i have repaired stalingrads factorie as germany. of course i bombed them the turn before :evil:. answer is: yes
another small question:
If japan captures the brit AA in PER and then russia recaptures PER does the aa return to Brit control or is it now RED!
i dont think aa guns can be liberated :) 99.9% red :evil:
Sorry, Atarihuana, you’re wrong on this one. The UK gets the AA gun, unless its capital is held by the enemy, in which case the USSR gets both the territory and the AA gun (at least temporarily).
wow :-o thx for clarification. :-)
I guess I should elaborate on this further. Any time a territory changes hands, whether captured or liberated, any ICs and AA guns in that territory change ownership to the new owner of the territory.
Of course, there is one exception. The situation involves when your capital is held by the enemy and your ally captures one of your former territories from the enemy rather than liberating it because of this. When your capital is liberated, you get the territory back from your ally, but he/she gets to keep any AA guns in it.
The UK gets the AA gun, unless its capital is held by the enemy, in which case the USSR gets both the territory and the AA gun (at least temporarily).
This is what I read from the rulebook.
Any time a territory changes hands, whether captured or liberated, any ICs and AA guns in that territory change ownership to the new owner of the territory.
This is what confuses me a bit.
Just to clarify: “New owner” in the given example (Russia recaptures=liberates PER from Germany) means “original controller”=Britain.
So in the second when Russia liberates Persia for Britain ownership switches to Britain.
Am I right?
Yes.
when placing newly purchased ships, they can be placed in any sea zone adjacent to your IC, correct?
Yes.
Another question:
One of the SU’s NO is: “Gain 5 IPC if no Allied forces are present in a territory controlled by the SU and if the Soviets control Archangel.”
Let us consider a scenario, in which the SU controlls and holds only Russia and Archangel. All other soviet territories are captured by Axis powers.
The SU will still gain 5 IPC because no Allied forces are present in one of the two territories controlled by the SU.
Am I right?
Yes.
if the chineese capture an japanese AA can they control it? ( cuz only infantry…)
Yes.
thx for your patience krieghund. now you only need to tell me how to add karma :evil:
You gain that ability after you reach 100 posts. At that point you will be able to applaud and smite people.
@P@nther:
Another question:
One of the SU’s NO is: “Gain 5 IPC if no Allied forces are present in a territory controlled by the SU and if the Soviets control Archangel.”Let us consider a scenario, in which the SU controlls and holds only Russia and Archangel. All other soviet territories are captured by Axis powers.
The SU will still gain 5 IPC because no Allied forces are present in one of the two territories controlled by the SU.
Am I right?
Sounds like 5 more IPCs for the Axis to me!
I’ll ask a followup to this one. When it says “controlled by the soviet union” that means currently controlled, not “originally” controlled, right? If russia controls norway, and the UK lands there, it’s bye-bye bonus, correct?
Correct.
ok, i got one more :)
Lets say a japanese AC+2FTR are in Iwo Jima seazone. american combat move :
4 subs attack AC
2TN 2inf 2arm land Iwo Jima.
since naval battle must be conducted first, lets assume AC sunk. planes now must land on iwo jima. so they get to defend against amphibious invasion right?
edit: argh i just realized the planes would sink the TN before they could assault… so the 2 TN would need surface battleships… which would mean that the fighters would be destroyed…
