@MillCreek said in AA50 Rules Errata and Q+A:
If you liberate a territory after a capital is captured, you get the IPCs and the use of the factory.
Let’s say in turn X Germany, already owning Karelia, captures Russia. Later in this turn UK successfully attacks Karelia. If the SU had not lost its capital, Karelia would be liberated for the SU.
Now the SU has lost its capital, so UK can use the Karelian factory (next turn) and gain income.
In case SU later takes back its capital or an Ally liberates Russia for the SU, UK has to instantly revert ownership of Karelia to Russia.
So far so good.
If a capital falls and you still control a territory with a factory(say Russia falls and UK controls Karelia), you don’t get the IPCs or the use of the factory.
This scenario is impossible. UK cannot control Karelia at the moment Russia falls. UK cannot control Karelia as long as Russia is in SU’s hands. As in every case the SU controls its capital its territories not having been captured by the enemy are controlled by SU, too.
So let’s assume there are UK units in a SU owned Karelia. Those UK units do not control Karelia as Karelia is under SU’s control. In case Germany takes Russia then, Karelia remains SU-controlled.
Does this make any kind of reasonable sense? What’s the difference, other than a game technicality?
You can never control a territory of your Ally as long as your Ally controls his capital.
The only way to gain control over an Allied territory is to liberate an Allied territory (from the enemy) while your Ally’s capital is in enemy’s hands.
HTH :slightly_smiling_face: