A lot of posters seemed stunned at this scenario, never scene it ever happen or even could happen. Now that I mulled it over last night and looked at the rules and so forth it is very obvious to me why no one has ever scene this scenario. Because the scenario makes no logical sense.
Italy DOW on Russia and moves in 2 tanks into Eastern Poland.
Russia is now at war with Italy and can DOW on Germany at the start of their next turn, turn 3.
Germany on Turn 3 does not DOW on Russia and just non combats into Eastern Poland.
Russia at the start of Turn 3 DOW on Germany and off we go.There is no logical reason why Russia would not DOW on Germany at the start of Turn 3, none.
Heck you could argue that it makes no logical sense that Germany did not DOW on Russia at the start of G3 since Italy brought Russia into the war and Russia WILL DOW on Germany on R3.
Hi PainState,
From my perspective, if I was planning on doing a G3 Barbarossa AND I wanted to drive towards the south, then yes, it makes sense to not DOW. My stack will be together except for the minimum required mobile units and maybe 1 AAA in Poland so Russia doesn’t attack Poland to get their NO for occupying an Axis territory. But E. Poland will be real strong because the German air will be there and maybe bombers will also be in range of a raid on the Moscow factory. Also, 5 IPCs is more income than I’d probably get as Germany on the 1st turn.
There are a few disadvantages of course. 1, Russian blockers can’t be attacked. 2, the Scandinavian units are behind. But for me that’s ok, I just use them to lay siege anyways. I never expect to get Moscow on turn 6 anymore. I assume that the UK/Anzac and that lone French fighter are going to get to Moscow.Â
Question about aircraft combat moving
-
Three aircraft attack a sea zone, 2 from a carrier and 1 from land. The 1 aircraft from land cannot come back to any of the island, but is able to reach the carrier. The carrier aircraft don’t have the range to land on any island.
So here’s my question: Can I assume (and make sure) that one of the aircraft will be shot down in the battle so only 2 will be left and land on the carrier?
In other words, can I assume that some aircraft will take casualties so a carrier can handle all the returning aircraft? Thank you!
-
@superbattleshipyamato No. All aircraft must have a landing area available to them before combat. You may not assume any casualties.
-
Thank you (darn it, my planned attack can’t happen now)!
-
@superbattleshipyamato Note: this “plan” can be a tenuous as possible, just provided it could happen. Let’s say there’s a massive US fleet sitting off of Midway, and a load of transports sitting off the Hawaiian coast.
You’ve got a small fleet in SZ 6, but it can’t kill the Americans at Midway.
You could send a plane (which will have 0 range left, and need to land in that sea zone) to attack the Hawaiian transports and kill them, IF (and ONLY if) you send something that could kill the Americans blocking at Midway, and theoretically allow you to non-combat move a carrier to Hawaii upon which to land the plane.
That “something” could be a single submarine, against the massive American fleet. Why? Theoretically, it could kill all the boats. It’s wildly improbable but nevertheless statistically possible.
You have to have a plan–however silly–to land planes before combat. In the case above, you’ve got to send the sub. Note: if, somehow, that sub actually won (haha) you would be required to send your aircraft carrier. You said you would, after all!!
-
Yes, that plan is the cleverest cheat of the game. My opponents are too smart for that though.
Suggested Topics
