Transport loading and offloading

@SuperbattleshipYamato said in Remove autodestruct rule for transports:

@shadowhawk

The thing is, those scenarios are far more unlikely than having defenseless transports, so if you’re playing with new players you’ll have to explain the “infinite dice” rule far more frequently than those stupid fake loopholes, which means the same amount of time is lost. I personally have only experienced those two scenarios you described maybe 10 times (probably less) in the 50-100 games I’ve played in my life (of all variants!)

If you have to explain someone that if there is only 1 side throwing dice they will win then you should not play those persons to begin with.

@Panther

:+1:

Thank you both for the clarification.

I’ve seen it happen multiple times in SZ6 around Japan, where a massive US-fleet first sends precisely those units ( sub+air+tt ) in an amphibious assault because they can’t be targetted by kamikaze. After the amphibious assault, the rest of the fleet moves in during noncombat.

Sometimes I find the units on the transports more valueable to eliminate than the transport itself.

In a RARE occassion, someone might opt to NOT scramble against such an attack, and let the infantry be destroyed instead!  :evil:

@knp7765:

I have another transport question regarding the “defenseless transports” rule and transports in an attack status:
I know that if transports are defending, once any other warships are sunk and there are attackers left, ALL transports are immediately destroyed.
However, if transports are part of an attack, they are not considered defenseless because they can retreat. So if you have some transports with two warships, let’s say cruisers, and the defender gets 2 hits, then the two cruisers are sunk and the transports can then retreat. However, if the defender were to get 3 or more hits, then some of those transports would also be hit and sunk with the remaining transports being able to retreat.  Is this correct?

Specific example: Germany attacks Volgograd with 1 cruiser and 1 transport. Russia scrambles 2 fighters to SZ 115. Both fighters score hits. So in this case, both the German cruiser AND the German transport are sunk, right? It wouldn’t be sink the cruiser and the transport retreats. The 2nd Russian fighter hit would be applied to the transport since the 1st Russian fighter hit sank the cruiser.
That’s the way we played it and I’m pretty sure I’m right. Any defending hits in excess of attacking warships can be applied to attacking transports.

That’s my understanding as well.

Zallomallo is right.  Because the sub submerged, it no longer blocks the amphibious assault and cannot kill the transport.  There was no reason for the sub to submerge, however, as the planes could no longer hit it.  If the sub did not submerge, the transport could retreat, assuming it had somewhere to retreat to (if not, it would be lost).

Thats true,
they are only candiates for joining the EU like Turkey for example…
I Know they Play qualification for European Soccer campionship,
but so does Israel and turkey too… Funny Thing ;)
Think it was intended that iceland counts to European “belonings,”
but it would Be Nixe if Krieghund could clearifiy this b/c imo this rule applies to the European and African (contnental) mainland…