Here’s the set up.
1. Germany captures all of Russian cities (and their IC).
2. Britain captures Berlin.
3. It is now Japan’s turn. Can Japan build units in the Russian IC that are owned by Germany?
If the answer is “yes”, then this is goofy since that would allow, for example, Japan to bring in 6 units to Russia and then Italy can also bring in 6 units to Russia.
If “no”, then the phrases in the rule book don’t make sense (for example under “Industrial Complexes” it says, “you cannot …. unless that power’s capital is in enemy hands.”)
I suspect the answer is yes, but can someone address this for me? I’ve searched through the forum and can’t find it anywhere.
Thanks!
(p. 22):
“You cannot place your new units at an industrial complex owned by a friendly power, unless that power�s capital is in
enemy control and you have taken control of the industrial complex from an enemy power after the friendly power�s
capital was captured.”
As long as your power is not in control of Moscow, you are not allowed to mobilize troops in Moscow.
You are not allowed to mobilize troops in ANY industrial complex which is not under YOUR control.
You have to capture Moscow first, then you are allowed to build troops there.
To capture Moscow/Russia by your power, this territory has to be liberated by an allied power beforehand! Sounds complicated…
On page 26 the handbook does not state the complete sentence, mentioned above, so it is a little bit misleading.
Awesome, it was getting late playing last night and that bit on page 20 is exactly what I was looking for. Thank you.
To capture Moscow/Russia by your power, this territory has to be liberated by an allied power beforehand! Sounds complicated…
Isn’t this incorrect? For instance, Japan could “liberate” Morocco while Berlin is in British hands and then place a control token on it to receive the IPCs. It would then be Japanese territory until Berlin is liberated, and then Morocco would return to German hands. In fact, as I understand it, Japan could blitz across German territory, taking it for its own.
Couldn’t the Japanese just send a tank to Moscow and take it as its own then?
As I understand it, the answer is no but would love the move official people to weigh in.
What about when german units are available in a german country and Japanese units move in. Does Japan get to claim it or is it only when no German units are there?
I suspect that the rule as I understand it is a bit cleaner:
And, for factories, I think the rule is:
Some please correct me if I’m not getting the rule right.
As I understand it, the answer is no but would love the move official people to weigh in.
I suspect that the rule as I understand it is a bit cleaner:
- If a germany falls falls (say to UK) then all territory belonging to Germany stays German.
- Suppose, all while Berlin is UK hands, US takes France ––> US gets France. If next, Japan takes France, then Japan gets to claim France. If next, Berlin is liberated, then France immediately goes back to Germany.
And, for factories, I think the rule is:
- A country can only use an IC in a territory that they controlled at the beginning of their turn.
Some please correct me if I’m not getting the rule right.
All above is correct.
What about when german units are available in a german country and Japanese units move in. Does Japan get to claim it or is it only when no German units are there?
In order for Japan to conquer (versus liberate) a German controlled territory after Berlin has fallen, the territory has to be taken by an allied power. Just moving Japanese units into a Germany territory does nothing to the ownership of the territory, whether Berlin was lost or not.
