@gamerman01
Sorry. I think I had it in my head that the part
With the exception of Southern France (see discussion of “Zone Libere” below), Vichy French territory operates the same way as other Pro-Axis Neutral territory. An Axis player may capture Vichy French territory and commandeer its forces by moving a land unit into the territory during the non-combat phase of his turn.
was before
At the beginning of France’s first turn in which Armistice conditions are met, all originally French territories not already under Axis control immediately change ownership to Pro-Axis Neutrals, except: (1) French Equatorial Africa; (2) New Hebrides; (2) any French territories containing non-French allied land units.
Secondly
@gamerman01 said in League General Discussion Thread:
@mainah said in League General Discussion Thread:
How does a pro-axis territory that has a standing army become an allied power territory with that said army when another allied army liberates a different territory?
I don’t understand your question
The pro axis neutral southern france has 1 inf, 1 art, 1 CZ, 1 DD that will revert back to french control if the allies liberate Paris.
If the rules are taken at face value, in the order that they are written, I see what you are saying.
But if I am trying to understand that Southern France is:
- pro-axis neutral
- except for the fact that you can fly over without occupying it
- you can occupy it as the Axis but the army disbands, not activate like a pro-axis neutral
- the allies have to fight for it like any other pro-axis neutral
- unless they liberate france, in which case the pro-axis neutral units in southern france become french again
- or a French unit liberates southern france, in which case the pro-axis neutral units become free french
the rule that it is a pro-axis neutral does not seem to fit.
That creates another question: If a Free French unit (allied) enters in an liberates Southern France, activating the army/navy as french, do they do it on CM, or non-CM? Why to whatever the answer is.