It has always been like this.
It has always been like this.
Thank you. I guess it is logical if you consider it! There is a difference between industrial complexes and air and navy improvements.
I think the logic was to prevent any confusion about China being able to purchase anything other than inf and art if they captured a factory.
If Vichy is in effect, can the Axis use the harbour in Southern France? I don’t see why not.
Yes they can.
Apologies if this has been asked before. I’m a little confused about what exactly happens in what order if the Vichy Armistice is broken.
The situation: Vichy France has been activated in a previous turn. Italy takes a North African Vichy territory and Southern France.
1. Does he fight the defending troops to conquer Southern France, or is it Pro-Axis enough to just walk in and annex it?
2. If no fighting occurs, do the troops in Southern France join Italy? I’d assume not, but a literal reading of the rules implies they do.
3. Does Italy get the troops in North Africa? As the rules say the rest of the troops are disbanded at the end of the turn, and Italy annexes it before the end of the turn, I’m guessing yes? Feels wrong though.
1. Walk in.
2. No the units disband.
3. Yes, so if Axis are walking into S France they still have that nation’s turn to take Pro-Axis Vichy territories before the units disband.
Gamerman, since the Lend-Lease NOs seem to create some confusion, could you please add the following at the end of the Lend-Lease NO for Russia:
‘‘For example, if Japan and Russia are not at war, then Japan can’t block the NO by putting a warship in sz 5.’’
Thanks.
Sure, no problem
Thanks Adam & Gamerman!
I’m confused about Vichy and FIC and the 10 IPC NO for Japan.
The 2nd edition NO rule is that Japan must not have ATTACKED FIC to collect the 10
I looked at the stickied thread rules and didn’t see any change to this NO.
The NO language in Triple A for the Balanced Mod is that FIC is not OCCUPIED by Japan
This would seem to indicate that whether Vichy is in effect or not, Japan could attack FIC but as long as they don’t occupy it with any ground units at the end of the turn they could still collect 10, and this doesn’t seem right.
I think this was addressed several months ago but I don’t remember the answer.
IIRC Triple A only looks to see if FIC is occupied by Japan with regards to the NO, so BM followed suit. It would make more sense if it were ‘‘attacked’’ instead of ‘‘occupied’’.
The problem with that language is that if Vichy is in effect Japan can occupy FIC without attacking it. I guess it should be attacked or occupy. The problem with that is if Japan activates FIC but then uses it to the Allies, they should still lose the NO. I think if that happens Triple-A might grant the NO but I don’t think it should.
The problem with that language is that if Vichy is in effect Japan can occupy FIC without attacking it. I guess it should be attacked or occupy. The problem with that is if Japan activates FIC but then uses it to the Allies, they should still lose the NO. I think if that happens Triple-A might grant the NO but I don’t think it should.
Occupy implies an attack, even if dice aren’t rolled.
Thank you for the quick reply Adam
So to be perfectly clear -
You’re saying that Japan can take control of Vichy FIC and not lose the NO, right? Because it’s a friendly neutral and Japan is not attacking FIC as per the 2nd edition NO language?
(That’s what I had told my opponent, who is playing Japan and laid off FIC) but we’ll play it according to what you say the rule is supposed to be.
No, there is no way for Japan to control FIC and still get +10. So you could say that the rule in BM is that if FIC is attacked or controlled by Japan, they lose the +10.
The problem with that language is that if Vichy is in effect Japan can occupy FIC without attacking it. I guess it should be attacked or occupy. The problem with that is if Japan activates FIC but then uses it to the Allies, they should still lose the NO. I think if that happens Triple-A might grant the NO but I don’t think it should.
Occupy implies an attack, even if dice aren’t rolled.
I trust Gamerman’s reply shows you that it doesn’t. It’s a non combat move.
If we can agree on phrasing I can update it in the notes.
The fact that the most senior people here, myself included (?), are still unclear about the rules, simply tells me that they are too complex. Just my two cents…not sure how we can effectively simplify while maintaining all that is great in B.M. and most of it is great, don’t get me wrong. I am not complaining just making an observation that you can toss out with yesterday’s news if you like. With that said I would also like to thank all the B.M. folks and everyone who puts in so much to this addiction I have. W/much love…
I don’t see anything more complex than what was in the original game to be honest. Remember the huge FAQ for G40? In BM there are a handful of ‘‘unclear’’ rules, with many of them coming from unclear vanilla rules and their implementation into TripleA.
Is there anything you don’t understand or you aren’t sure of?
The problem with that language is that if Vichy is in effect Japan can occupy FIC without attacking it. I guess it should be attacked or occupy. The problem with that is if Japan activates FIC but then uses it to the Allies, they should still lose the NO. I think if that happens Triple-A might grant the NO but I don’t think it should.
Occupy implies an attack, even if dice aren’t rolled.
I trust Gamerman’s reply shows you that it doesn’t. It’s a non combat move.
If we can agree on phrasing I can update it in the notes.
The phrasing should be that if Japan attacks or takes control of FIC, they lose the NO.
