A lot of posters seemed stunned at this scenario, never scene it ever happen or even could happen. Now that I mulled it over last night and looked at the rules and so forth it is very obvious to me why no one has ever scene this scenario. Because the scenario makes no logical sense.
Italy DOW on Russia and moves in 2 tanks into Eastern Poland.
Russia is now at war with Italy and can DOW on Germany at the start of their next turn, turn 3.
Germany on Turn 3 does not DOW on Russia and just non combats into Eastern Poland.
Russia at the start of Turn 3 DOW on Germany and off we go.There is no logical reason why Russia would not DOW on Germany at the start of Turn 3, none.
Heck you could argue that it makes no logical sense that Germany did not DOW on Russia at the start of G3 since Italy brought Russia into the war and Russia WILL DOW on Germany on R3.
Hi PainState,
From my perspective, if I was planning on doing a G3 Barbarossa AND I wanted to drive towards the south, then yes, it makes sense to not DOW. My stack will be together except for the minimum required mobile units and maybe 1 AAA in Poland so Russia doesn’t attack Poland to get their NO for occupying an Axis territory. But E. Poland will be real strong because the German air will be there and maybe bombers will also be in range of a raid on the Moscow factory. Also, 5 IPCs is more income than I’d probably get as Germany on the 1st turn.
There are a few disadvantages of course. 1, Russian blockers can’t be attacked. 2, the Scandinavian units are behind. But for me that’s ok, I just use them to lay siege anyways. I never expect to get Moscow on turn 6 anymore. I assume that the UK/Anzac and that lone French fighter are going to get to Moscow.Â
Rule Clarifications please
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I have several G40 rule questions I would like clarified:
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Can a transport loaded with an Infantry and a AAA gun amphibious assault with the Infantry in CM, then unload the AAA in NCM? You aren’t allowed to unload BOTH units in the assault right?
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Can a country ‘blitz’ through two pro allied neutral territories to activate them in NCM?
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If you capture a Major IC with damage counters on it, say less than 6, do the damage counters stay even though the factory is reduced to a Minor IC?
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Can Japan attack the UK in the Pacific and still collect the 10IPCs for not being at war with the US since the US doesn’t declare war until the of it’s trurn?
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If a SZ has an enemy Transport and you amphibious assault in that SZ but want to shore bombard can you designate one ship, like a sub, to attack the transport so the rest of your ships can bombard, or is it one or the other only? Could you send a plane to attack the Transport and therefore let all your ships ignore it so they can bombard?
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If the US attacks a SZ with a carrier loaded with an ANZAC fighter, the fighter counts simply as cargo right? The plane doesn’t get to attack or soak a hit for the US?
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If 2 bombers, 2 Tacs, 2 fighters attack a AAA gun and the gun rolls three 1’s, how are the casualties designated?
8 ) Can a cruiser or battleship move one space into a SZ where transports are performing an amphibious assault, expecting a potential scramble, then move another space in NCM if the enemy player decides not to scramble (assuming no bombardment)?
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If a declared amphibious assault fails the naval battle and must retreat from the SZ before any landing, can any planes sent to said territory also retreat or must they endure one round of combat?
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If you upgrade a Minor IC to a Major IC, WHEN does this occur? At the start of the turn, allowing you to produce 10 units at the end of this turn, or is it during the Produce new units phase? This one is critical for the game I’m currently playing.
Thanks!
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1. No. In fact you can’t even load an AAA in Combat Move.
2. No. Only the first.
3. It is downgraded and has 6 damage only.
4. No. Rule also says: if it has not made a DOW on the UK.
5. One or the other. Not both.
6. The Anzac Ft is not in the combat, but will go down with the Carrier, if that is sunk. It does not get to attack at 3.
7. Attacker chooses losses.
8. No.
9. Planes would have to fight one round.
10. The IC cannot produce 10 units until the next turn. -
Thanks wittmann
Some follow ups,
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So, no matter how many damage counters a Major IC has on it, as soon as it is captured and downgraded any and all damage counters remain (up to 6 max)?
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If say Rome is Allied occupied and Italian units capture Moscow, what happens to the plundered Russian IPCs?
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Let’s say Japan has captured 6 VCs in the Pacific, in order to win the game they must simply hold them until the start of the next Japanese turn, right?
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Hello again.
3. That is right.
11. The Italian player gets the money, but can’t spend it until he once again owns Rome at the beginning of his turn. (The Germans or Japanese could recapture for him.)
12. That is right. Japan ( even with Euro Axis help) needs to maintain 6 VPs until the beginning of its next turn. It can’t dip to 5 at any time inbetween. -
@wittmann:
12. That is right. Japan ( even with Euro Axis help) needs to maintain 6 VPs until the beginning of its next turn. It can’t dip to 5 at any time inbetween.
Actually, Germany or Italy could capture a Pacific VC and later Japan can lose one, and the Axis would still win, right?
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As long as it never dips below 6, yes. Does not need be the 6 Japan originally held, as you pointed out, calvinhobbesliker
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So let me get this right;
If a major IC with 2 damage on it is downgraded to a minor IC, there will be 6 damage on the minor IC???
I always thought that >=6 becomes 6, and <6 stays <6.
Worth memorizing that one. -
No. It is as you thought, ItIsILeClerc.
Below 6 remains as it is. 6-20= 6 only. -
- Say 1 Bomber, 1 Tac, 1 Fighter attack an AAA gun, the gun rolls 1D6 for each plane specifically, right?
As soon as you have more than 3 planes per gun then the AAA gun simply rolls for 1’s and the attacker chooses casualties, is this correct?
In other words, as long as the attacker has more planes than the AAA guns can roll for then their more expensive planes are basically safe because the randomness of getting your Bombers shot down is now neutralized.
- Say 1 Bomber, 1 Tac, 1 Fighter attack an AAA gun, the gun rolls 1D6 for each plane specifically, right?
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- Say 1 Bomber, 1 Tac, 1 Fighter attack an AAA gun, the gun rolls 1D6 for each plane specifically, right?
No, see the rulebook:
@rulebook:
Once the number of air defense dice is determined,
the dice are rolled. For each “1” rolled, the attacker
must choose 1 air unit as a casualty.So in your example three dice are rolled against three air units, regardless of the type of air unit.
The attacker chooses even then, to which units he assigns the hits.The attacker’s option to “save” more expensive air units is given in any case (when he attacks with different air units).
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Thank you Panther
- Ok, so let’s say there’s 4 US Transports in the English Channel. The UK player loads 4 AAA guns and 2 Infantry in NCM, and 2 French Infantry on their turn. Both the UK and French Infantry are allowed to amphibious assault on their respective turns, right? The AAA guns stay behind? The AAA guns may only unload with or without Infantry in NCM.
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That’s correct. The UK infantry couldn’t amphib until next turn. The French could amphib on the turn they load. Remember you can’t unload the AA in ncm if their transport already dropped a dude off in combat move that turn. If you still have the French on board when UK attacks next turn those two AA could unload in ncm.
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… The French could amphib on the turn they load.
No, sorry, this part is not correct.
@rulebook:
Transporting Multinational Forces: Transports
belonging to a friendly power can load and offload your
land units, as long as both powers are at war. This is a
three-step process:
1. You load your land units aboard the friendly
transport on your turn.
2. The transport’s controller moves it (or not) on
that player’s turn.
3. You offload your land units on your next turn.So the French Inf has to wait one turn aboard the US Transport before it can offload.
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Oh? I thought if the tranny didn’t move they could attack the same turn. I see that is not the case. Thanks Panther.
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@wittmann:
11. The Italian player gets the money, but can’t spend it until he once again owns Rome at the beginning of his turn. (The Germans or Japanese could recapture for him.)
I just want to specify here that if the Italians had an IC in say, Ukraine or Egypt, they could spend the money there. Or in Russia fo that matter. They don’t have to wait for their capital to be liberated, do they?
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Hi Shin Ji.
You can’t buy anything if you do not control your Capital.
See page 21 Pacific, under Capturing and liberating Capitals. -
Huh. Thanks Wittman. Maybe TripleA confused me on that one. Can’t recall if it actually happened or if I was concerned that it might happen. Either way, I know now.
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