Yes, as long as there were already some Russian units in Galicia at the beginning of the turn.
What if the units were of an ally?
Ok. So just to be sure, dropping the inf off a transport into the contested space he came from does NOT constitute an amphibious assault?
Correct. It is an amphibious reinforcement.
So if I wanted to get around that and use shore bombardment, I would have to completely evacuate the contested space and then re-engage?
Cheers
Ok. So just to be sure, dropping the inf off a transport into the contested space he came from does NOT constitute an amphibious assault?
Correct. It is an amphibious reinforcement.
Never mind. I got my answer from copying and pasting all your answers into another thread.
So if I wanted to get around that and use shore bombardment, I would have to completely evacuate the contested space and then re-engage?
Cheers
I have posted all questions and Krieghund`s responses here, including the FAQ on page 14 of this thread:
http://www.axisandallies.org/forums/index.php?topic=32651.0
I have done this because going through 42 pages to find an answer is ridiculous, and I am sure Krieghund may get tired of answering the same questions. I will try to keep it up to date for awhile.
If two Cruisers attack two Subs and get one hit, can the hit Sub fire back while the Sub that survives submerge?
Yes.
Thank you Krieghund. Thought so.
Naval mine fields
Does the controller of the adjacent territorry of a naval symbol roll for mines for its enemys? For example germany has captured Washington and Britain enters Sz 1. Does Germany roll for mines on the british ships?
Welcome, Wildweasel!
Minefields are not active when the naval base is controlled by an enemy power. They are only active when it’s either contested or controlled by it’s original owner.
tx Krieghund
I know Battleship bombardment is limited to the number of troops offloading from a transport during an amphibious assault, but is this before or after coastal artillery fire?
Ex. 3 French infantry and 1 French artillery with 2 battleships assault 1 Ottoman infantry and 5 Ottoman artillery in Albania. If 3 or 4 coastal shots hit, are the French limited to 1 or 0 bombardment shots, respectively?
Thanks in advance.
Both battleships bombard, regardless of how many units make it to shore. Just because they don’t make it ashore doesn’t mean they didn’t offload.
After reading the Kriegs answers thread I had a question about this post:
"Q.
If France moves into Spanish Morroco on Turn 1, no units activate, since it’s a colony, correct? I’m pretty sure the answer is yes but just making sure.
A.
Correct."
1. So America can basically walk into Spanish Morroco and gain the 1 IPC without having to fight anything?
2. The same rule doesn’t apply for Ethiopia because it has a large symbol on it, therefore anyone entering it would have to fight the 1 inf and 1 art?
3. Are there any other neutral territories that don’t mobilize a force beside Spanish Morroco and the Balearic Islands?
4. Can America take over Spanish Morroco before being at war?
1. Yes.
2. Correct.
3. No.
4. No.
If a German cruiser moves into SZ1 when USA is still neutral but then attacks an American ship there in the combat phase does it have to roll for mines retrospectively?
No.
Krieghund when you get asked a question that is clearly in the rulebook do you ask yourself if the person even read the rulebook? or have you just gotten used to silly questions sometimes?
THIS IS NOT ABOUT ANY QUESTION ON THIS TREAD OR FORUM. IT’S ME WONDERING.
While I agree that the rulebook need a good going over before asking, that rulebook is not well organized. And an index would do wonders.
Why question is a general question not something about a specific game. and I’m talking about questions like “I read the rulebook and can’t find it what are all the dice for?” type question.
