A lot of posters seemed stunned at this scenario, never scene it ever happen or even could happen. Now that I mulled it over last night and looked at the rules and so forth it is very obvious to me why no one has ever scene this scenario. Because the scenario makes no logical sense.
Italy DOW on Russia and moves in 2 tanks into Eastern Poland.
Russia is now at war with Italy and can DOW on Germany at the start of their next turn, turn 3.
Germany on Turn 3 does not DOW on Russia and just non combats into Eastern Poland.
Russia at the start of Turn 3 DOW on Germany and off we go.There is no logical reason why Russia would not DOW on Germany at the start of Turn 3, none.
Heck you could argue that it makes no logical sense that Germany did not DOW on Russia at the start of G3 since Italy brought Russia into the war and Russia WILL DOW on Germany on R3.
Hi PainState,
From my perspective, if I was planning on doing a G3 Barbarossa AND I wanted to drive towards the south, then yes, it makes sense to not DOW. My stack will be together except for the minimum required mobile units and maybe 1 AAA in Poland so Russia doesn’t attack Poland to get their NO for occupying an Axis territory. But E. Poland will be real strong because the German air will be there and maybe bombers will also be in range of a raid on the Moscow factory. Also, 5 IPCs is more income than I’d probably get as Germany on the 1st turn.
There are a few disadvantages of course. 1, Russian blockers can’t be attacked. 2, the Scandinavian units are behind. But for me that’s ok, I just use them to lay siege anyways. I never expect to get Moscow on turn 6 anymore. I assume that the UK/Anzac and that lone French fighter are going to get to Moscow.Â
Mongolian Neutral Clarification.
-
I know that if Japan attacks a Russian territory ajacent to the Mongolian neutrals, the Inf. in those territories are instantly activated and become Russian. The question I have is regarding if I attack Amur AND the Mongolian territory of Buyant-Uhaa at the same time, does that mean the Mongolian is treated as attacking a strict neutral so all strict neutrals become pro-allies? Or do the remaining Mongolian units still become Russian? (I hope I’m being clear enough)
Regards, SMS
-
this act is treated as attacking a strict neutral, so all strict neutrals become pro-allies.
-
@Young:
this act is treated as attacking a strict neutral, so all strict neutrals become pro-allies.
Really? Even though I’m simotaniously attacking a Russion territory ajacent to it? Is there some place in any of the rules that address this? Or is this just an opinion? (Not that I doubt you YG -I just want to be right instead of my son besting me :wink: )
-
@Young:
this act is treated as attacking a strict neutral, so all strict neutrals become pro-allies.
Really? Even though I’m simotaniously attacking a Russion territory ajacent to it? Is there some place in any of the rules that address this? Or is this just an opinion? (Not that I doubt you YG -I just want to be right instead of my son besting me :wink: )
No problem, I’ve asked this question before in the FAQ thread, that’s how I know for sure.
-
It’s in the FAQ.
-
The key phrase is “at the end of Japan’s Conduct Combat Phase”.
-
Is there some place in any of the rules that address this?
There is. Pacific 2e rules, page 39:
In all other respects and for all other purposes, the Mongolian territories are treated as any other strict neutral territory. For example, if a Mongolian territory is attacked by Japan while still a strict neutral, all of the other strict neutral territories will become pro-Allies.This should actually make sense, since the Mongolian units won’t switch to Russian until the end of Japan’s combat phase. So in order for Japan to have also attacked Mongolia in the same move, they must have already declared war on the strict neutrals.
-
.tsgv file??? What do I need to open it?





