Brando, why would you leave 1 inf in each territory? The only ones that matter are rostov and Baltic States. You will lose 6 ipcs in units for not much gain in epl/bess.
I leave 1 Inf in each territory, so the Axis/enemy can’t just walk in. Inf have a 33% chance of a hit. Prevents a country from just taking a territory w/1 Inf. Usually the attacking country has to attack w/2 ground units, just in case your Inf gets a hit. Also prevents the enemy from sending just one ground unit on a long walk across your territories(i.e. when Japan starts marching across the Soviet Far East). I don’t always do this. Like in China, I consolidate the Chinese Inf whenever possible. But in Russia, I always try to leave at least 1 Inf in each territory. One thing to point out, I don’t leave 1 Inf in each territory, unless the enemy has a chance to take that territory.
Because they only have a 33% chance to hit, I would not want to risk giving away nearly free infantry kills to Germany unless they are defending something valuable. Each infantry you put in his way is 1 less body defending something critical for a 33% chance to kill 1 thing.
It’s not just a 33% chance of killing something. It’s making the enemy commit more than 1 Inf/1 ground unit to take the territory How would this hurt a country like germany that will have mechs constantly reinforcing and the positioning does not screw him?. Maybe you didn’t read my entire post. Again, I don’t always leave 1 Inf behind in each territory(i.e. China and other territories) Japan can just send 1 inf and air, it really won’t hurt him if he wants to.. However, leaving 1 Inf behind on such things as islands, even 1 IPC islands. Your enemy would most likely have to commit at least 2 ground units to take the islandIt depends on the value of the island and the likelihood he/she would go for it.. Therefore, forcing your opponent to commit more resources to take territories and have less units to use elsewhere. I understand what you mean, but this is also a game of economics and efficiency. If your opponent does not need to go for it, or is not even affected by it, the one infantry won’t be an issue.Like I said in my explanation, Soviet Far East is a good example. There are 13 IPC’s from Soviet Far East to Vologda/Samara. If your strategy is to leave these unguarded for Japan to just take w/1 Inf, then go for it. In my opinion, over the 26 years I’ve played A&A, it’s the wrong stategySince russia can easily stop japan from taking it unless Japan commits more to the front, it really is not an issue. Also, with mongolia, it won’t be unguarded.
Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)
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Does a german bomber in original chinesse territory prevent China from taking it back.
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Does a german bomber in original chinesse territory prevent China from taking it back.
China can’t declare war on a European Axis power unless
one of those powers first either declares war on China or moves units into a territory into which Chinese units are allowed to
move.Page 38 Pacific 1940 2nd Edition Rule Book.
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SITUATION:
-A Japanese navy sits off of Hawaii. (1 battleship, 1 loaded transport, 1 dst, 2 acc, 4 fgt)
-Japan sends the fighters and the transport to attack forces in Western United States. Leaving it’s carriers in the Hawaiiaan sea zone.
-Japan also uses transports off Japan, to amphibiously assault Hawaii.
-Hawaii is defended by two fighters.The question is this…
1. Can Japan attack Western USA with fighters, knowing that should the americans scramble at hawaii the japanese carriers ‘may’ be involved in combat, and unable to provide a landing zone?The issue is that by leaving the carriers in the hawaiin sea zone, it significantly discourages the Americans from scrambling (because they are unlikely to win). In a sense, the Japanese have committed their carriers to an amphibious operation, and are benefitting from two committments. Of course… if there is no scramble, there is no problem.
My understanding is that this move is entirely valid. Based on the rule that as long as there is a “possibility” of landing, the Japanese aircraft can attack WUSA.
And of course… if I’m the Americans, I’m likely to scramble 1 fighter, to prevent a bombard, and ensure the death of all 4 fighters sent to WUS.
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Right. Because the scramble is not a sure thing when doing the combat move, the combat move of fighters to WUS is valid.
The reason is that if the defender does not scramble at Hawaii, then the carriers are free to go to zone 10 to pick them up.
Like you said, you just have to demonstrate that it’s possible to pick up surviving aircraft. -
Sub Clarification please.
A sub can retreat from a battle, which takes place at the end of a combat round? Regardless of a destroyer present.
A sub can submerge in a battle, which takes place at the beginning of a round of combat? Cannot if a destroyer is present.
Is this correct?
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Also, can air force ever retreat separately from a battle? Thought i read that somewhere. And i know amphibious assault troops cannot retreat. what about accompanying forces that didnt arrive by boat? thanks!!
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Sub Clarification please.
A sub can retreat from a battle, which takes place at the end of a combat round? Regardless of a destroyer present.
A sub can retreat from a battle at the end of a combat round just like any other unit, yes.
Destroyers cancel the surprise strike, submersible, and cannot be hit by air units abilities of the submarine. Retreating is not a special ability - submarines can always retreat the same as any other ship.A sub can submerge in a battle, which takes place at the beginning of a round of combat? Cannot if a destroyer is present.
Is this correct?
Subs can only submerge when there is no active enemy destroyer present, right. (For example, if a German sub is in Z112 and a USA destroyer is in Z112, on the British turn, to prevent the German sub in Z112 from submerging requires a British destroyer. On the UK turn, the American destroyer does not cancel the German submarine’s special abilities, even though they are in the same zone. This scenario is quite possible, as the USA may have chosen to ignore the German submarine or may have noncommed the destroyer to Z112)
Subs submerge whenever they would normally be making a surprise strike. -
Also, can air force ever retreat separately from a battle? Thought i read that somewhere. And i know amphibious assault troops cannot retreat. what about accompanying forces that didnt arrive by boat? thanks!!
Yes. What you read, was the amphibious assault rules.
The ONLY scenario there is EVER separate retreating is in an amphibious assault scenario.You potentially have 2 groups of attacking units in an amphibious assault.
- Ground units that were offloaded from transports
- All other units
Group 1) can never retreat
Group 2) can retreat as normal, but all must retreat together. This is the only time you can retreat aircraft before other units. Note that the aircraft must retreat with all ground units that came OVER LAND and not off the transports.
You must specify when taking casualties, whether you are removing ground units that came over land or off transports, as you are losing them. This can sometimes be important.So, if the attacker decides to retreat Group 2) (which would be any and all aircraft along with any surviving ground units that came OVER LAND and not off transports), then that would leave all units from Group 1) (ground units offloaded from transports) to fight the remainder of the battle to the death.
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Technically, Aircraft don’t retreat “with” other units. When the attacker declares that they are retreating, all units disengage (if able - ie amphibious assaults).
While other land or sea units move to an adjacent space they passed thru, the air units STAY in the attacked space, and are moved away during the noncombat phase. You are not obligated to use one of the aircraft move points to stay with the land/sea units that retreated (although that may be the path chosen).
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Right
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Can an AA gun activate a friendly neutral?
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Afraid not Cond1024.
Has to be a ground unit with an attack value. -
Wittmann speaks true
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If UK get war bond tech do both London and India get to roll it or do they only get one roll to share?
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If UK get war bond tech do both London and India get to roll it or do they only get one roll to share?
1 d6, and the UK player gets to allocate the IPC’s however they wish. Similarly, India/London can share the cost of each tech roll however the player wishes
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Can you amphibious assault two different territories from the same sea zone?
Can you amphibious assault a single territory from two different sea zones?Also have a unique situation. Player A makes purchases which includes buying a minor factory. At the end of his turn realizes he bought the factory to early(his words not mine) and cashes it back in for $12. Now keep in mind he is able to place the factory. We have always played you can refund yourself if you miscounted because of factory damage and you cant place something or something else that would violate the rules. Just wondering if the rulebook talks about this and/or what do most people do concerning this. Thanks.
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Can you amphibious assault two different territories from the same sea zone?
Yes, you can assault multiple territories from the same sea zone at the same time, but units from each transport have to go to the same territory, so you need at least one transport with ground units on it, for each territory you are landing on. (i.e. you can’t land on two territories with only 1 transport that has 2 ground units on it.)
Can you amphibious assault a single territory from two different sea zones?
YES, and GET THIS! While you must have 1 ground unit for each bombarding ship, they need not be from the same zone!!
Example:
Germany could assault Norway from Z113 and Z126 simultaneously. Germany could drop ONE ground unit from 113 and have, say, 6 bombarding ships in Z113. If Germany drops at least FIVE (for a total of 6) ground units from Z126, ALL SIX bombarding ships can bombard! Per Krieghund. Crazy, no? :-)Also have a unique situation. Player A makes purchases which includes buying a minor factory. At the end of his turn realizes he bought the factory to early(his words not mine) and cashes it back in for $12. Now keep in mind he is able to place the factory. We have always played you can refund yourself if you miscounted because of factory damage and you cant place something or something else that would violate the rules. Just wondering if the rulebook talks about this and/or what do most people do concerning this. Thanks.
If you CAN LEGALLY place it, you MUST, if you play by the rule book. So according to the rulebook, your friend MUST place the IC in the legal location, and can not receive a refund. Nor can he pass Go. :wink: If you bought more units than you can legally place (like because of damage) then you MUST turn in the excess units and get a refund of IPC’s.
Page 23, Europe 2nd edition manual
“Move the newly purchased units from the mobilization zone on the game board to eligible spaces you have controlled since the start of your turn”. There is no option to refund units that you could place.“In the event that you purchased more units than you can actually mobilize due to production limitations, you must return the over-produced units to the box (your choice of units), and the cost of the units will be reimbursed to you.”
Granted, it doesn’t explicitly specify regarding facilities that can’t be placed, but it follows logically that they would be returned and refunded only if there is no eligible territory for it/them.
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Thanks gamerman as always top notch! And that is Crazy…WickedCrazy!! :evil:
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remind me - can you drop 10 units from z113 and bombard with 10 ships in 112?
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remind me - can you drop 10 units from z113 and bombard with 10 ships in 112?
Not unless you drop at least one unit from 112.
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