Cow: That is right. You can load in the Combat turn you declare war, then move out of the SZ to unload elsewhere.
You could not unload in the SZ you started in unless you had Naval units to fight and sink the Cruiser first, as the enemy Cruiser will prevent unloading.
Again you are right: if at war you cannot.
You are not wrong, but I will answer third part: UK could put a Destroyer in the same zone as a lone Japanese Transport, then when war was declared by Japan, the Japanese player load in Combat Turn and move away to amphibiously land elsewhere(as explained).
The UK could do this to ensure Japan does not take an island or land territory of UK’s choice with defenceless Transports, as the Japanese player would have to sink the Destroyer or move away.
It might be a worthwhile move.
Ok…another question.
I have a game going where my opponent is attacking UK on G2… a SeaLion w/3 transports. Does he have to take Uk to bring Russia/US into the war…or is just attacking it enough to bring them in?
London must be captured, not merely attacked. If London is captured, both the USA and USSR may declare war on their turns.
Can a land unit move through a friendly neutral into another friendly neutral within the same noncombat movement phase?
For example:
A Soviet infantry enters Northwest Persia converting the territory from pro-Allies to Soviet, then (during the same phase) a Soviet tank moves through Northwest Persia into Persia converting the territory and it’s forces from pro-Allies to Soviet.
Can a land unit move through a friendly neutral into another friendly neutral within the same noncombat movement phase?
For example:
A Soviet infantry enters Northwest Persia converting the territory from pro-Allies to Soviet, then (during the same phase) a Soviet tank moves through Northwest Persia into Persia converting the territory and it’s forces from pro-Allies to Soviet.
no way, sorry wheatbeer.
I know this is unsportsmanly but I have a question:
Suppose you have a couple ships and a carrier with planes. In the sea zone adjacent to you there is a very large enemy fleet, and in a land territory adjacent to the sea zone on the other side of the mega fleet there is an important target that you desperately need to kill with your planes (e.g. you are in z79, enemy fleet is in z39, and in Burma there is a single infantry you want to kill so it doesn’t retake India after you liberate it). I know it may be unethical, but would it be legal to attack the mega fleet with something that is very unlikely to sink it but that could sink it (e.g. 1 destroyer against a dozen carriers) and suicide your planes against the soft target, claiming that your intention was that after your destroyer heroically sinks the mega fleet (by rolling all 1s against straight 6s in 50+ rounds of dice rolls which could happen :roll: ), your plan is to ncm the carrier in there (z38) and allow the planes to land? Also, if the destroyer fails to sink the mega fleet and the carrier can’t go there can it run away in the other direction and let the planes crash? Would such an unethical move be legal?
yes this move is totally legal, and I think very clever in the right circumstances
Legal AND ethical
There is a similar example in the actual rule book.
Thank you. :evil:
Can the china fighter land in Kwangtung and in Burma?
I mean yes because it is original china territory and china can also move units there so it is also allowed?
Can the china fighter land in Kwangtung and in Burma?
I mean yes because it is original china territory and china can also move units there so it is also allowed?
Yes, the Chinese fighter can move into Kwangtung and Burma. Even if Britain isn’t at war with Japan.
However, Burma and Kwangtung aren’t original Chinese territories. They’re original British territories.
China can take temporary control of Burma and/or Kwangtung if it recaptures them from the Axis while India is Axis-held.
I don’t have access to a 2nd edition Pacific rule book.
My 1st edition rule book says “Kwangtung and Burma are special cases. While they are not Chinese territories AND CANNOT BE CONTROLLED BY CHINA, Chinese forces can attack Axis units there and occupy them…. …These are the only non-Chinese territories that Chinese units can occupy.”
Emphasis added.
So did the rule change somewhere along the line since the OOB rule book?? Because I only see one way to interpret this.
From the 1st edition errata:
Page 9, China Rules: The second sentence of the fourth paragraph should read “While they are not Chinese territories, Chinese forces can move into them, but China cannot control them, unless India is under Axis control and China recaptures them from the Axis.”
Is that errata in addition to the FAQ? I have the FAQ dated May 10, 2010 but no errata.
Can you provide a link again? Thanks
In the meantime, I’ll write that rule about-face in my rule book so I don’t make the same mistake again, and will delete the errant post to avoid confusing players
It is here.
Question : Here’s the situation : It’s the US turn. The Germans have a sub present in a seazone and that’s the only enemy warship present in that seazone. The Brits also have a sub in that seazone. The US wants to conduct an amphibious assault from that seazone w/only US transports. Does the Brit sub count as an escorting warship. Or, does the US have to provide the escorting warship b/cuz it’s the US turn.
I know in the rules it states that a transport(s) wishing to conduct an amphibious assault from a seazone containing enemy subs must be escorted by a friendly warship. But, what defines friendly? Is it any friendly power that is allied w/your side and at war w/your enemies. Or, does the power whose turn it is have to provide that escorting warship?
Where does it state this in the 2nd edition rules?
Question : Here’s the situation : It’s the US turn. The Germans have a sub present in a seazone and that’s the only enemy warship present in that seazone. The Brits also have a sub in that seazone. The US wants to conduct an amphibious assault from that seazone w/only US transports. Does the Brit sub count as an escorting warship. Or, does the US have to provide the escorting warship b/cuz it’s the US turn.
You have to have your own (USA) warship. I know for sure because Krieghund has clarified this before
Does the Brit sub count as an escorting warship. Or, does the US have to provide the escorting warship b/cuz it’s the US turn.
And to provide further clarification, you are exactly right here. The issue is that when a nation attacks it always does so solo and can not count the presence of other friendly units. You only get to count your allies when you defend. For this same reason, if you attack with a Carrier that has planes on it belonging to an ally, those planes don’t participate in the battle but they get to be sunk if the Carrier is hit and they can’t land elsewhere.
