Brando, why would you leave 1 inf in each territory? The only ones that matter are rostov and Baltic States. You will lose 6 ipcs in units for not much gain in epl/bess.
I leave 1 Inf in each territory, so the Axis/enemy can’t just walk in. Inf have a 33% chance of a hit. Prevents a country from just taking a territory w/1 Inf. Usually the attacking country has to attack w/2 ground units, just in case your Inf gets a hit. Also prevents the enemy from sending just one ground unit on a long walk across your territories(i.e. when Japan starts marching across the Soviet Far East). I don’t always do this. Like in China, I consolidate the Chinese Inf whenever possible. But in Russia, I always try to leave at least 1 Inf in each territory. One thing to point out, I don’t leave 1 Inf in each territory, unless the enemy has a chance to take that territory.
Because they only have a 33% chance to hit, I would not want to risk giving away nearly free infantry kills to Germany unless they are defending something valuable. Each infantry you put in his way is 1 less body defending something critical for a 33% chance to kill 1 thing.
It’s not just a 33% chance of killing something. It’s making the enemy commit more than 1 Inf/1 ground unit to take the territory How would this hurt a country like germany that will have mechs constantly reinforcing and the positioning does not screw him?. Maybe you didn’t read my entire post. Again, I don’t always leave 1 Inf behind in each territory(i.e. China and other territories) Japan can just send 1 inf and air, it really won’t hurt him if he wants to.. However, leaving 1 Inf behind on such things as islands, even 1 IPC islands. Your enemy would most likely have to commit at least 2 ground units to take the islandIt depends on the value of the island and the likelihood he/she would go for it.. Therefore, forcing your opponent to commit more resources to take territories and have less units to use elsewhere. I understand what you mean, but this is also a game of economics and efficiency. If your opponent does not need to go for it, or is not even affected by it, the one infantry won’t be an issue.Like I said in my explanation, Soviet Far East is a good example. There are 13 IPC’s from Soviet Far East to Vologda/Samara. If your strategy is to leave these unguarded for Japan to just take w/1 Inf, then go for it. In my opinion, over the 26 years I’ve played A&A, it’s the wrong stategySince russia can easily stop japan from taking it unless Japan commits more to the front, it really is not an issue. Also, with mongolia, it won’t be unguarded.
Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)
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I have a question regarding amphibious assaults that came up in my last game:
I was playing Germany and I was going to conduct an amphibious assault against London. I had 3 transports off the coast of Norway that loaded 2 infantry and moved into the channel with a battleship, a cruiser, and an aircraft carrier supporting. In the channel was 1 destroyer. Since in the rules it states when conducting an amphibious assault you must make the sea zone you conduct it from friendly through a naval combat, and that when conducting an amphibious assault you may load troops from any territory along your transport’s movement path, am I able to load 3 tanks and 1 additional infantry from Normandy onto my transports and have them participate in the amphibious assault after my ships have destroyed the destroyer?
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@Joziu you need to bring all loaded Transports with your ships together into the sz with defending destroyer. Then UK can scramble fighters to that naval battle too. Conduct naval combat. If you win naval battle and have Transports still alive then you can do amphibious assault. Somebody will explain in better detail soon
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@Joziu Welcome to the forum. :slightly_smiling_face:
All amphibious assault related movement must be done during the Combat Move Phase. That means that all transports that will unload for the amphibious assault after the sea battle have to load and move during the Combat Move Phase phase. So that occurs before the sea battle starts. Those loaded transports will be part of the sea battle then and may unload into the hostile territory after the sea battle has ended successfully.
In your scenario you would not be able to load the units from Normandy as during Combat Move Phase SZ 110 is hostile due to the enemy destroyer - and you are not allowed to load transports in hostile seazones (an exception to that rule doesn’t match here).
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Hello,
I’m a fairly new player, and got right into the Global edition after playing a few times on 1942.I just wanted to get some clarification on something.
Can unescorted transports that are loaded naval invade an enemy zone during the combat move?
Regardless of if there are ships in the sea zone or not, or troops stationed in the land zone or not?Thanks to all.
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@Aven Good day.
A Transport can only unload (attack amphibiously) into an enemy territory in Combat Movement . The territory does not need to be Occupied. If it is, then combat takes place.
Non Combat is only for unloading into a Friendly territory.
I hope this answers your question. Ask again, if I habe not answered, however. -
@Aven said in Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2):
Can unescorted transports that are loaded naval invade an enemy zone during the combat move?
Regardless of if there are ships in the sea zone or not, or troops stationed in the land zone or not?A transport is not allowed to offload land units for an amphibious assault in a sea zone containing one or more ignored enemy submarines unless at least one warship belonging to the attacking power is also present in the sea zone at the end of the Combat Move phase.
In case there are enemy surface warships present in the seazone, the seazone is hostile and must be cleared before unloading the transport for an amphibious assault.
Welcome to the forum :slightly_smiling_face:
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@Wittmann @Panther Thank your for your assistance.
So that means a convoy would be able to naval invade with/without combat ship assistance given that there are no enemy ships in the sea zone?
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@Aven a Transport can amphibiously invade a territory, if the Sea Zone is empty, yes.
It can go, unescorted, should you wish.
That is , as long as there is not an Air Base adjacent to the Sea Zone and a Fighter or Tactical Ft could scramble and Attack the Transport, of course. -
@Wittmann Thank you for that clarification. :)
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Looks like if Germany don’t DOW on USSR but leave one of their subs in SZ125, even though Italy does DOW, then USSR loses the lend lease bonus.
Rule:
“5 IPCs if the convoy in sea zone 125 is free of Axis warships, Archangel is controlled by the Soviet Union, and there are no units belonging to other Allied powers present in any territories originally controlled by the Soviet Union. Theme: National prestige and access to Allied Lend-Lease material.”Has a clarification been issued on this point? Reading the rule text it seems that a nation not at war with USSR can affect their NOs, which is counter intuitive.
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@simon33
Germany and Italy both are Axis powers. So yes, any Axis warship wil cancel that bonus. It does not matter that Germany is not at war with SU, yet, when Italy is. -
Since it is Lend-Lease, think of it as Germany sinking supply ships belonging to the other Allies, which has nothing to do with being at war with the USSR.
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Question. ANZAC has sea units in SZ20, which is a Kami zone. It wants to do an amphibious assault to Kiangsi from that sea zone. If I’m reading it right, ANZAC’s sea units can’t move on combat movement to escape the Kami even though there’s no reason for them to participate in sea combat. Now let’s say there’s 2CVs and 2 DDs. Both CVs and one DD are attacked by Kamis and one is hit once and damaged, other CV is missed and the DD is hit and sunk. Can any or all remaining units move on non combat movement? Or does it count as participating in combat? Only the DD?
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@simon33
Kamikaze strikes “are resolved before any combat begins”. Kamikaze itself is not a sea battle and not part of the rulebook’s Combat Sequence. So Kamikaze strikes do not prevent ships from moving during noncombat move phase, provided the ships have not moved before or been part of a maybe subsequent sea battle.In your scenario the Destroyers and Carriers have neither moved nor participated in combat during that turn, so they may move during noncombat move phase.
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If Italy declares war on Russia and blitzes E. Poland to Baltic. Than next turn, Germany doesn’t declare war on Russia and it’s not turn 4. Germany just places 1 inf in E. Poland to act as a blocker, but moves all of it’s stack to the Italian tank in Baltic. Triplea lets Russia move 1 infantry into E. Poland that is simultaneously occupied with 1 German infantry while not at war in order to retake it. So you have a situation with 1 German infantry and 1 Russian infantry in the same territory. Is Russia permitted to do so, or must it declare war on Germany and roll combat dice?
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@Ichabod The “Powers not at War with One Another”-rules on page 15, European rulebook, state:
"Combat: A power can’t attack a territory controlled by or containing units belonging to a power with
which it is not at war. "So that Russian move is not allowed. Russia must declare war to Germany first and is then allowed to perform this Combat Move.
TripleA/the Global 1940 map has it in its game notes:
“(PE) You may not attack a territory containing units owned by a nation that you are not at war with (even if the territory is owned by someone you are at war with).” -
As China’s capital, Shanghai, is occupied by the Japanese can the USA capture a Chinese territory from Japan, Manchuria, and build an American industrial complex on it? Also where would the income go - China or USA —- and what about new Chinese troops be “built” in Manchuria ?
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@Cloudesley From the Pacific 1940.2 rulebook, page 10:
Unlike the other powers in the game, China is not an
industrialized nation and has a rural economy and
decentralized government. As a result, China does not have
a capital like other powers do. If all Chinese territories are
captured by Japan, China retains its unspent IPCs in hope
of liberation and does not give them to Japan. In addition,
China may spend IPCs only to purchase infantry units
(with one exception, see below) and does not use industrial
complexes. New Chinese units can be mobilized on any
Chinese territory that is controlled by China, including
those captured in the current turn. If a Japanese industrial
complex is built on a Chinese territory and that territory is
later recaptured by the Chinese or liberated by another Allied
power, the industrial complex is removed from the game.
China is not subject to convoy disruptions (see “Conduct
Convoy Disruptions,” page 22).That should answer your questions. Note that USA can only liberate Chinese territories for China.
Please ask if anything remains unclear.
I have moved your question to the Q+A thread by the way. -
@Panther Thanks for the prompt reply!
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The typical situation is to have a british destroyer in sea zone 37 at end of round 1. In round two Japan places a bunch of war ships in that sea zone (37), but does not declare war. In round two the british declares war on Japan and now my question/what I dont understand. Is it legal for the destroyer to escape even though it does not have any combat elsewhere or is it forced to fight? Everyone is moving out, but I am not sure why it is legal.
Also, what if you have a transport in the same sea zone. Are you allowed to load men from malaya on combat and then move this out while declaring war? Even though the transport is not unloading during combat? I dont think so.
What is the difference between the cases if any?