@P@nther:
@Zhukov44:
Assuming a 2nd edition game where Japan did not declare on Allies J1 and parked some naval units in sz 36. If United Kingdom declares on Japan UK1, is it legal for UK to land fighters in French Indochina (after attacking sz36)? Is it legal for UK to move units into Fico before or after a declaration, or do France and Japan need to be at war first?
Its tricky to define what sort of “neutral” France is in the Pacific theater. Unlike Anzac and/or Holland, France doesn’t automatically go to war with Japan when United Kingdom declares.
France cannot be neutral, as it starts the game as Ally (allied with UK) being already at war. It is simply not at war with Japan.
So UK may of course move units into allied French territories.
We had a similar discussion in another thread, which might be interesting for you in this context, starting from here:
https://www.axisandallies.org/forums/index.php?topic=41162.msg1724255#msg1724255
HTH :-)
Very good. I figured if I was wrong on this one then it’s a very serious TripleA bug that needs fixing right away.
Superficially, there seems to be some logical inconsistencies here though. For example, if Russia isn’t at war with Germany (but is at war with Japan, and thus allied with UK on that front) it’s considered illegal for UK to land fighters/bombers in Russia on the Europe side of the board.
But I guess the difference here is that UK can move units into French Indochina before or after war with Japan is declared.