Brando, why would you leave 1 inf in each territory? The only ones that matter are rostov and Baltic States. You will lose 6 ipcs in units for not much gain in epl/bess.
I leave 1 Inf in each territory, so the Axis/enemy can’t just walk in. Inf have a 33% chance of a hit. Prevents a country from just taking a territory w/1 Inf. Usually the attacking country has to attack w/2 ground units, just in case your Inf gets a hit. Also prevents the enemy from sending just one ground unit on a long walk across your territories(i.e. when Japan starts marching across the Soviet Far East). I don’t always do this. Like in China, I consolidate the Chinese Inf whenever possible. But in Russia, I always try to leave at least 1 Inf in each territory. One thing to point out, I don’t leave 1 Inf in each territory, unless the enemy has a chance to take that territory.
Because they only have a 33% chance to hit, I would not want to risk giving away nearly free infantry kills to Germany unless they are defending something valuable. Each infantry you put in his way is 1 less body defending something critical for a 33% chance to kill 1 thing.
It’s not just a 33% chance of killing something. It’s making the enemy commit more than 1 Inf/1 ground unit to take the territory How would this hurt a country like germany that will have mechs constantly reinforcing and the positioning does not screw him?. Maybe you didn’t read my entire post. Again, I don’t always leave 1 Inf behind in each territory(i.e. China and other territories) Japan can just send 1 inf and air, it really won’t hurt him if he wants to.. However, leaving 1 Inf behind on such things as islands, even 1 IPC islands. Your enemy would most likely have to commit at least 2 ground units to take the islandIt depends on the value of the island and the likelihood he/she would go for it.. Therefore, forcing your opponent to commit more resources to take territories and have less units to use elsewhere. I understand what you mean, but this is also a game of economics and efficiency. If your opponent does not need to go for it, or is not even affected by it, the one infantry won’t be an issue.Like I said in my explanation, Soviet Far East is a good example. There are 13 IPC’s from Soviet Far East to Vologda/Samara. If your strategy is to leave these unguarded for Japan to just take w/1 Inf, then go for it. In my opinion, over the 26 years I’ve played A&A, it’s the wrong stategySince russia can easily stop japan from taking it unless Japan commits more to the front, it really is not an issue. Also, with mongolia, it won’t be unguarded.
Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)
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Yeah, I haven’t played tech for a long time, but reading the rules on rockets, there’s nothing that says you can’t target the same facility multiple times in the same turn, so I echo Bob
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Is rocket range 4 instead of 3 in G40? I think (East) Germany is 4 spaces away from London and Scotland.
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Is rocket range 4 instead of 3 in G40? I think (East) Germany is 4 spaces away from London and Scotland.
Yes:
@rulebook:
Rockets. Your air bases can now launch rockets. During the Strategic and Tactical Bombing Raids step of
your Conduct Combat phase each turn, each of your operative air bases can make a single rocket attack
against an enemy industrial complex, air base, or naval base within 4 spaces of it. This attack does one die
roll of damage to that facility. Rockets may not be fired over neutral territories. -
While playing the game find some questions:
1. Can air units hit ground units even without enemy air units?
2. If liberate a city with a factory, can mobilize units on the new factory in mobilization phase?
3. Do French have to liberate Paris then they can use their bonus 12 points or when liberate other parts of France homeland they can use the money? -
1 air units can attack anything during a battle( special rues for subs) defender picks what the lose.
2you can only mobilize new units at a ic that was yours at the start of your turn, so no.
3 you must liberate the capitol…paris -
Re: 2
There is the odd exception that if (say) Moscow’s capital is liberated by an ally and the Soviets got some money by taking someone else’s capital, the Soviets will be able to spend money on the first turn they have their new capital. Is that a loophole?
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if (say) Moscow’s capital is liberated by an ally and the Soviets got some money by taking someone else’s capital, the Soviets will be able to spend money on the first turn they have their new capital. Is that a loophole?
No, this has been the case all the way back to classic - it’s intended
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if (say) Moscow’s capital is liberated by an ally and the Soviets got some money by taking someone else’s capital, the Soviets will be able to spend money on the first turn they have their new capital. Is that a loophole?
No, this has been the case all the way back to classic - it’s intended
Not only is that working as intended, it’s standard procedure. So, Soviets captured some money and an ally liberated Moscow. Therefore, at the start of the Soviets’ next turn they: possess their capital, possess some capitol, and possess a factory. Production can start right away, because the Soviets have met the requirements to make new units.
-Midnight_Reaper
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I wonder what the reasoning is for that one.
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I have another kamikaze question.
Suppose there is an allied fleet that includes surface warships and a loaded transport in a friendly sea zone with a kamikaze symbol. The allies want to land the ground troops by amphibious assault, but are afraid of a kamikaze strike on the warships. They would like to evacuate the surface warships if possible.
I believe the surface warships could leave the sea zone in combat move phase and avoid a sea battle if the zone were hostile (which its not in this case) or if it could become hostile by scramble from an airbase (again, not a factor in this case). However, is the same true of a possible kamikaze strike? Can the surface ships leave the zone in combat move phase because a kamikaze attack could make it hostile? I feel like the answer depends on when exactly the kamikaze attack takes place and whether a kamikaze attack would create a sea battle, but I am fuzzy on those details.
As I understand it, Kamikazes stop shore bombards because they create a sea battle, but kamikazes do not allow sub block because they do not create a sea battle like what happens when a plane is scrambled from an airbase.
This issue came up in my game against Tizket and he perceptively posed this interesting question. Given the recent discussions about kamikazes I honestly don’t know what the answer to this might be. Help would be appreciated, thanks
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I believe the surface warships could leave the sea zone in combat move phase and avoid a sea battle if the zone were hostile (which its not in this case) or if it could become hostile by scramble from an airbase (again, not a factor in this case). However, is the same true of a possible kamikaze strike? Can the surface ships leave the zone in combat move phase because a kamikaze attack could make it hostile? I feel like the answer depends on when exactly the kamikaze attack takes place and whether a kamikaze attack would create a sea battle, but I am fuzzy on those details.
Kamikaze is a defensive strike occurring at the beginning of the Conduct Combat Phase. So it does not make a seazone hostile, it does not create a sea battle.
So the “Sea Units Starting in Hostile Sea Zones”-rules do not apply here. You can however move ships out of that seazone during Combat Move Phase following the other rules for Combat Moves (for example move to a hostile seazone).As I understand it, Kamikazes stop shore bombards because they create a sea battle, but kamikazes do not allow sub block because they do not create a sea battle like what happens when a plane is scrambled from an airbase.
No, Kamikaze does not create a sea battle. It stops bombards because of a special rule: “A kamikaze strike prevents offshore bombardment supporting an amphibious assault in that sea zone, whether or not the strike is successful”.
Kamikaze is irrelevant to the question whether an ignored submarine prevents a transport from unloading, because the requirement of a warship escorting the transport has to be fulfilled at the end of the Combat Move Phase (and not during the Conduct Combat Phase).HTH :-)
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Ahh that clarifies a lot. Thank you P@nther
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So while the US ships could move to a hostile SZ in combat movement, they couldn’t move to a friendly one, is that what you are saying? Seems to be the black letter rule but I think it goes against the spirit of the rules. Hmm.
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No it actually follows the spirit of the rules Simon. You were never allowed to make a non-combat move during the combat movement phase with any type of units. The only exception to the rules regarding that is what variance already pointed out, that being a non-combat move from a hostile sea zone to avoid combat. I know that sometimes people make non-combat moves at the same time that they are making their combat moves, but technically it is against the rules and always has been.
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No it actually follows the spirit of the rules Simon. You were never allowed to make a non-combat move during the combat movement phase with any type of units. The only exception to the rules regarding that is what variance already pointed out, that being a non-combat move from a hostile sea zone to avoid combat. I know that sometimes people make non-combat moves at the same time that they are making their combat moves, but technically it is against the rules and always has been.
What about the exception which allows you to escape battle?
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I mentioned that one, about beginning your turn in a hostile sea zone. It’s only relevant for naval units since there’s no way land units from opposing sides could possibly be in the same territory at the end of someone’s turn, and therefore could not escape combat. If you mean retreating, that doesn’t happen on the combat movement or non-combat movement phase. It happens during combat.
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The thing is, even if there was a kamikaze strike carried out in said seazone, ships in that zone would still be able to move in the non-combat phase normally because they were not involved with “combat” because the kamikazes didn’t “create” combat in the zone.
So it’s not like when someone builds a destroyer into your zone or moves a sub into your zone that you want to attack, where you would need the rule that allows you to move away to avoid combat. The kamikaze strike doesn’t prevent your ships (that weren’t involved in bombarding) from moving in non-com the way they would be prevented from moving if they were engaged in combat with an enemy ship.
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Does Turkey connect to Bulgaria as in real life?
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The thing is, even if there was a kamikaze strike carried out in said seazone, ships in that zone would still be able to move in the non-combat phase normally because they were not involved with “combat” because the kamikazes didn’t “create” combat in the zone.
So it’s not like when someone builds a destroyer into your zone or moves a sub into your zone that you want to attack, where you would need the rule that allows you to move away to avoid combat. The kamikaze strike doesn’t prevent your ships (that weren’t involved in bombarding) from moving in non-com the way they would be prevented from moving if they were engaged in combat with an enemy ship.
Possibly, but would the rule about sea/land units participating in combat not being able to participate in ncm apply if a kamikaze strike missed?
However, this attack can still knock planes off aircraft carriers so can be pretty devastating, even if you are right.
I mentioned that one, about beginning your turn in a hostile sea zone. It’s only relevant for naval units since there’s no way land units from opposing sides could possibly be in the same territory at the end of someone’s turn, and therefore could not escape combat. If you mean retreating, that doesn’t happen on the combat movement or non-combat movement phase. It happens during combat.
Perhaps what I was saying is unclear. If you can move to escape a combat which might hurt your ships, why can’t you move to escape a Kamikaze which also might hurt your ships? Of course, it only is a problem if you have a potential Kamikaze and no potential scramble, so not a frequent scenario.
@IKE:
Does Turkey connect to Bulgaria as in real life?
No. You clearly need to go through Greece.
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Possibly, but would the rule about sea/land units participating in combat not being able to participate in ncm apply if a kamikaze strike missed?
I think that Gamer’s saying that kamikazes have no effect on what the surviving ships can or can’t do during NCM, regardless of whether they hit or miss.
@IKE:
Does Turkey connect to Bulgaria as in real life?
No. You clearly need to go through Greece.
Bulgaria and Turkey share a 167 mile border, same as before WWII started.