Brando, why would you leave 1 inf in each territory? The only ones that matter are rostov and Baltic States. You will lose 6 ipcs in units for not much gain in epl/bess.
I leave 1 Inf in each territory, so the Axis/enemy can’t just walk in. Inf have a 33% chance of a hit. Prevents a country from just taking a territory w/1 Inf. Usually the attacking country has to attack w/2 ground units, just in case your Inf gets a hit. Also prevents the enemy from sending just one ground unit on a long walk across your territories(i.e. when Japan starts marching across the Soviet Far East). I don’t always do this. Like in China, I consolidate the Chinese Inf whenever possible. But in Russia, I always try to leave at least 1 Inf in each territory. One thing to point out, I don’t leave 1 Inf in each territory, unless the enemy has a chance to take that territory.
Because they only have a 33% chance to hit, I would not want to risk giving away nearly free infantry kills to Germany unless they are defending something valuable. Each infantry you put in his way is 1 less body defending something critical for a 33% chance to kill 1 thing.
It’s not just a 33% chance of killing something. It’s making the enemy commit more than 1 Inf/1 ground unit to take the territory How would this hurt a country like germany that will have mechs constantly reinforcing and the positioning does not screw him?. Maybe you didn’t read my entire post. Again, I don’t always leave 1 Inf behind in each territory(i.e. China and other territories) Japan can just send 1 inf and air, it really won’t hurt him if he wants to.. However, leaving 1 Inf behind on such things as islands, even 1 IPC islands. Your enemy would most likely have to commit at least 2 ground units to take the islandIt depends on the value of the island and the likelihood he/she would go for it.. Therefore, forcing your opponent to commit more resources to take territories and have less units to use elsewhere. I understand what you mean, but this is also a game of economics and efficiency. If your opponent does not need to go for it, or is not even affected by it, the one infantry won’t be an issue.Like I said in my explanation, Soviet Far East is a good example. There are 13 IPC’s from Soviet Far East to Vologda/Samara. If your strategy is to leave these unguarded for Japan to just take w/1 Inf, then go for it. In my opinion, over the 26 years I’ve played A&A, it’s the wrong stategySince russia can easily stop japan from taking it unless Japan commits more to the front, it really is not an issue. Also, with mongolia, it won’t be unguarded.
Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)
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Can British ships move through the Panama Canal when the US is not at war? Can Russian (surface) ships move through the Strait of Gibraltar, the Panama Canal, or the Suez Canal when neither Russia nor the US is at war?
Interesting question, but I think that they can not.
It is like U try to move through Bosporus, but Turkey is true neutral and U can not.
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Can British ships move through the Panama Canal when the US is not at war?
Yes, see top of page 9
Can Russian (surface) ships move through the Strait of Gibraltar, the Panama Canal, or the Suez Canal when neither Russia nor the US is at war?
Yes, same rule
You can even move the Russian ships through the Danish straits if you can get the German player’s permission! (Only before Russia is at war with Germany)
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If the US enters the war on the collect income phase on its 3rd turn, then since the mobilize units phase was before that, does that mean that the US can only build 3 units on each factory?
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If the US enters the war on the collect income phase on its 3rd turn, then since the mobilize units phase was before that, does that mean that the US can only build 3 units on each factory?
Yes, exactly right
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If I have tech and have made the rocket breakthrough as UK, I can target Germany from both Scotland and London, right?
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Each of your airbases may make an attack on enemy facilities, range permitting. The more airbases you have, the more potential attacks you can do
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Yeah, I haven’t played tech for a long time, but reading the rules on rockets, there’s nothing that says you can’t target the same facility multiple times in the same turn, so I echo Bob
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Is rocket range 4 instead of 3 in G40? I think (East) Germany is 4 spaces away from London and Scotland.
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Is rocket range 4 instead of 3 in G40? I think (East) Germany is 4 spaces away from London and Scotland.
Yes:
@rulebook:
Rockets. Your air bases can now launch rockets. During the Strategic and Tactical Bombing Raids step of
your Conduct Combat phase each turn, each of your operative air bases can make a single rocket attack
against an enemy industrial complex, air base, or naval base within 4 spaces of it. This attack does one die
roll of damage to that facility. Rockets may not be fired over neutral territories. -
While playing the game find some questions:
1. Can air units hit ground units even without enemy air units?
2. If liberate a city with a factory, can mobilize units on the new factory in mobilization phase?
3. Do French have to liberate Paris then they can use their bonus 12 points or when liberate other parts of France homeland they can use the money? -
1 air units can attack anything during a battle( special rues for subs) defender picks what the lose.
2you can only mobilize new units at a ic that was yours at the start of your turn, so no.
3 you must liberate the capitol…paris -
Re: 2
There is the odd exception that if (say) Moscow’s capital is liberated by an ally and the Soviets got some money by taking someone else’s capital, the Soviets will be able to spend money on the first turn they have their new capital. Is that a loophole?
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if (say) Moscow’s capital is liberated by an ally and the Soviets got some money by taking someone else’s capital, the Soviets will be able to spend money on the first turn they have their new capital. Is that a loophole?
No, this has been the case all the way back to classic - it’s intended
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if (say) Moscow’s capital is liberated by an ally and the Soviets got some money by taking someone else’s capital, the Soviets will be able to spend money on the first turn they have their new capital. Is that a loophole?
No, this has been the case all the way back to classic - it’s intended
Not only is that working as intended, it’s standard procedure. So, Soviets captured some money and an ally liberated Moscow. Therefore, at the start of the Soviets’ next turn they: possess their capital, possess some capitol, and possess a factory. Production can start right away, because the Soviets have met the requirements to make new units.
-Midnight_Reaper
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I wonder what the reasoning is for that one.
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I have another kamikaze question.
Suppose there is an allied fleet that includes surface warships and a loaded transport in a friendly sea zone with a kamikaze symbol. The allies want to land the ground troops by amphibious assault, but are afraid of a kamikaze strike on the warships. They would like to evacuate the surface warships if possible.
I believe the surface warships could leave the sea zone in combat move phase and avoid a sea battle if the zone were hostile (which its not in this case) or if it could become hostile by scramble from an airbase (again, not a factor in this case). However, is the same true of a possible kamikaze strike? Can the surface ships leave the zone in combat move phase because a kamikaze attack could make it hostile? I feel like the answer depends on when exactly the kamikaze attack takes place and whether a kamikaze attack would create a sea battle, but I am fuzzy on those details.
As I understand it, Kamikazes stop shore bombards because they create a sea battle, but kamikazes do not allow sub block because they do not create a sea battle like what happens when a plane is scrambled from an airbase.
This issue came up in my game against Tizket and he perceptively posed this interesting question. Given the recent discussions about kamikazes I honestly don’t know what the answer to this might be. Help would be appreciated, thanks
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I believe the surface warships could leave the sea zone in combat move phase and avoid a sea battle if the zone were hostile (which its not in this case) or if it could become hostile by scramble from an airbase (again, not a factor in this case). However, is the same true of a possible kamikaze strike? Can the surface ships leave the zone in combat move phase because a kamikaze attack could make it hostile? I feel like the answer depends on when exactly the kamikaze attack takes place and whether a kamikaze attack would create a sea battle, but I am fuzzy on those details.
Kamikaze is a defensive strike occurring at the beginning of the Conduct Combat Phase. So it does not make a seazone hostile, it does not create a sea battle.
So the “Sea Units Starting in Hostile Sea Zones”-rules do not apply here. You can however move ships out of that seazone during Combat Move Phase following the other rules for Combat Moves (for example move to a hostile seazone).As I understand it, Kamikazes stop shore bombards because they create a sea battle, but kamikazes do not allow sub block because they do not create a sea battle like what happens when a plane is scrambled from an airbase.
No, Kamikaze does not create a sea battle. It stops bombards because of a special rule: “A kamikaze strike prevents offshore bombardment supporting an amphibious assault in that sea zone, whether or not the strike is successful”.
Kamikaze is irrelevant to the question whether an ignored submarine prevents a transport from unloading, because the requirement of a warship escorting the transport has to be fulfilled at the end of the Combat Move Phase (and not during the Conduct Combat Phase).HTH :-)
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Ahh that clarifies a lot. Thank you P@nther
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So while the US ships could move to a hostile SZ in combat movement, they couldn’t move to a friendly one, is that what you are saying? Seems to be the black letter rule but I think it goes against the spirit of the rules. Hmm.
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No it actually follows the spirit of the rules Simon. You were never allowed to make a non-combat move during the combat movement phase with any type of units. The only exception to the rules regarding that is what variance already pointed out, that being a non-combat move from a hostile sea zone to avoid combat. I know that sometimes people make non-combat moves at the same time that they are making their combat moves, but technically it is against the rules and always has been.