Brando, why would you leave 1 inf in each territory? The only ones that matter are rostov and Baltic States. You will lose 6 ipcs in units for not much gain in epl/bess.
I leave 1 Inf in each territory, so the Axis/enemy can’t just walk in. Inf have a 33% chance of a hit. Prevents a country from just taking a territory w/1 Inf. Usually the attacking country has to attack w/2 ground units, just in case your Inf gets a hit. Also prevents the enemy from sending just one ground unit on a long walk across your territories(i.e. when Japan starts marching across the Soviet Far East). I don’t always do this. Like in China, I consolidate the Chinese Inf whenever possible. But in Russia, I always try to leave at least 1 Inf in each territory. One thing to point out, I don’t leave 1 Inf in each territory, unless the enemy has a chance to take that territory.
Because they only have a 33% chance to hit, I would not want to risk giving away nearly free infantry kills to Germany unless they are defending something valuable. Each infantry you put in his way is 1 less body defending something critical for a 33% chance to kill 1 thing.
It’s not just a 33% chance of killing something. It’s making the enemy commit more than 1 Inf/1 ground unit to take the territory How would this hurt a country like germany that will have mechs constantly reinforcing and the positioning does not screw him?. Maybe you didn’t read my entire post. Again, I don’t always leave 1 Inf behind in each territory(i.e. China and other territories) Japan can just send 1 inf and air, it really won’t hurt him if he wants to.. However, leaving 1 Inf behind on such things as islands, even 1 IPC islands. Your enemy would most likely have to commit at least 2 ground units to take the islandIt depends on the value of the island and the likelihood he/she would go for it.. Therefore, forcing your opponent to commit more resources to take territories and have less units to use elsewhere. I understand what you mean, but this is also a game of economics and efficiency. If your opponent does not need to go for it, or is not even affected by it, the one infantry won’t be an issue.Like I said in my explanation, Soviet Far East is a good example. There are 13 IPC’s from Soviet Far East to Vologda/Samara. If your strategy is to leave these unguarded for Japan to just take w/1 Inf, then go for it. In my opinion, over the 26 years I’ve played A&A, it’s the wrong stategySince russia can easily stop japan from taking it unless Japan commits more to the front, it really is not an issue. Also, with mongolia, it won’t be unguarded.
Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)
-
@oysteilo No, they are not adjacent to each other. Per page 8 of the Europe Rulebook, “Spaces that meet only at a point (such as United Kingdom and sea zone 111) are not adjacent to one another, as they do not share a common border.”
-
@Krieghund I think your response is correct but I am sure there are alot of people from Cartagena who don’t appreciate that :)
-
P Panther forked this topic on
-
Suppose Germany controls Egypt, and an IC is present (whether it’s because there already was one or if Germany built it after capturing seems to be irrelevant). If the player uses the IC to build ground units but the territory is empty otherwise, do they still get the 5 IPC NO of Germany having a ground unit there?
-
Pages 23 and 25 of the Europe manual,
In phase 6: collect income, any national objectives and bonus income (page 25 of Europe manual) are collected “if the condition for that bonus has been met…”
The conditions would have been met in phase 5: Mobilize new units, when German ground unit(s) were placed on Egypt.
So then in phase 6: Collect income, Germany has met the condition for having at least 1 German land unit in Egypt and collects 5 more IPCs
-
Krieghund only, please:
A league player’s question is blowing my mind a little right now, please confirm if TripleA and most all of us league players are wrong on a naval base rule:
I checked the rulebook for him and found these 2 rules. Are there any others?
Here is what I wrote the questioner:
Page 16, rule for “naval bases”
“All ships beginning their movement phase from a sea zone serviced by an operative friendly naval base gain 1 additional movement point”
That rule is stated in the Phase 2: Combat movement section so this particular paragraph is meant for combat movement. Your question is about noncombat movement. I go to the noncombat movement section and it’s silent about bonus movement for naval.The rule on page 16 references page 28, where it says “all sea units beginning their movement from a sea zone serviced by an operative friendly naval base gain 1 additional point of movement range”
The wording “beginning their movement” or “beginning the movement phase” makes me think we’ve all missed this.
If you take over a territory that contains an operable naval base, do your ships in the adjacent seazone(s) to the new-to-you naval base gain the +1 bonus movement for the noncombat movement phase of your power’s turn? So, like, immediately? You don’t have to control the territory with the base from the beginning of your turn?
Thanks in advance
-
@gamerman01 They do not. Per page 20 of both the Europe and Pacific Rulebooks, “If you capture an air base or naval base, you can’t use the added flight or sea movement or receive repairs until your next turn.”
-
Whew, order is restored!
That’s iron-clad, and so helpful, thanks!
-

just for a visual gamerman01 :)
-
@gamerman01 said in Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2):
Whew, order is restored!
That’s iron-clad, and so helpful, thanks!
I didn’t really understand how the rules could be interpreted any other way.
-
If half burnt and ripped pages 16 and 28 were all you had… your faith may start to waver
-
Here is the situation. Germany has a bunch of mechs in both Ukraine and Bryansk but no tanks in either. Germany also has a bunch of tanks in Volgograd. UK owns Rostov but has no troops in it. UK has troops in Caucasus. Can Germany move its tanks into Rostov, join mechs from Ukraine and Bryansk and then attack Caucasus?
My understanding was no but Triple-A allows it.
-
Yes. UK owns Rostov so it’s not a blitzing move. It’s when blitzing enemy territory that a mech must be paired with a tank the whole movement.
-
@gamerman01 I think you may have misunderstood the question. Germany is doing the combat movement, so Rostov (being controlled by UK) is a hostile territory, and it is a blitzing move.
@simon33 The answer is no. As mechanized infantry can blitz only when they are paired with a tank for their entire movement (see page 29 of the Rulebook), the ones in Ukraine and Bryansk must stop in Rostov and may not continue on to Caucasus.
-
Yes, sorry, thank you!
I had tried to load up his map and it didn’t work, and then I imagined UK and Germany as allies @:$ It’s Monday -
This has probably been discussed a lot when the game first came out but I have seen people land a fighter from Romania on Tobruk G1. If Germany wants to “ping-pong” Yugoslavia but not take the territory (like attack it and retreat ground units to Romania), does the fighter HAVE to join the battle so that it’s allowed to land in Tobruk? It makes sense to make to me either way, since unfriendly neutrals can’t be flown over, but there’s also this in page 11 of the E40 manual: “When a neutral territory is invaded, it’s no longer neutral …”
-
@Suppressmeajumma said in Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2):
This has probably been discussed a lot when the game first came out but I have seen people land a fighter from Romania on Tobruk G1. If Germany wants to “ping-pong” Yugoslavia but not take the territory (like attack it and retreat ground units to Romania), does the fighter HAVE to join the battle so that it’s allowed to land in Tobruk? It makes sense to make to me either way, since unfriendly neutrals can’t be flown over, but there’s also this in page 11 of the E40 manual: “When a neutral territory is invaded, it’s no longer neutral …”
I’m sure it doesn’t So long as the territory has been attacked, planes from both sides can overfly it without attacking it.
-
@Suppressmeajumma Air units may overfly a formerly strict or unfriendly neutral territory in the Noncombat Move phase of the same turn in which it was attacked, as it is no longer neutral at that point.
-
I finally started reading the rulebook but still have a question for amphibious assaults. Can ships that cannot bombard (subs, dests, carriers) move into a sea zone where transports are unloading in a scenario where both of the following conditions are true?
- The sea zone has no enemy ships (not even subs or transports either) in the sea zone
- There is an air base on an adjacent territory but it has enough damage that it is inoperable, OR there is none at all.
This makes me think the answer is no - page 14 of the E40 manual: “Further, if enemy air units could potentially be scrambled to defend the sea zone, additional units may be moved into the sea zone to combat them in case they are scrambled”
-
@Suppressmeajumma They cannot do so in combat movement, but they can in noncombat movement.





