Brando, why would you leave 1 inf in each territory? The only ones that matter are rostov and Baltic States. You will lose 6 ipcs in units for not much gain in epl/bess.
I leave 1 Inf in each territory, so the Axis/enemy can’t just walk in. Inf have a 33% chance of a hit. Prevents a country from just taking a territory w/1 Inf. Usually the attacking country has to attack w/2 ground units, just in case your Inf gets a hit. Also prevents the enemy from sending just one ground unit on a long walk across your territories(i.e. when Japan starts marching across the Soviet Far East). I don’t always do this. Like in China, I consolidate the Chinese Inf whenever possible. But in Russia, I always try to leave at least 1 Inf in each territory. One thing to point out, I don’t leave 1 Inf in each territory, unless the enemy has a chance to take that territory.
Because they only have a 33% chance to hit, I would not want to risk giving away nearly free infantry kills to Germany unless they are defending something valuable. Each infantry you put in his way is 1 less body defending something critical for a 33% chance to kill 1 thing.
It’s not just a 33% chance of killing something. It’s making the enemy commit more than 1 Inf/1 ground unit to take the territory How would this hurt a country like germany that will have mechs constantly reinforcing and the positioning does not screw him?. Maybe you didn’t read my entire post. Again, I don’t always leave 1 Inf behind in each territory(i.e. China and other territories) Japan can just send 1 inf and air, it really won’t hurt him if he wants to.. However, leaving 1 Inf behind on such things as islands, even 1 IPC islands. Your enemy would most likely have to commit at least 2 ground units to take the islandIt depends on the value of the island and the likelihood he/she would go for it.. Therefore, forcing your opponent to commit more resources to take territories and have less units to use elsewhere. I understand what you mean, but this is also a game of economics and efficiency. If your opponent does not need to go for it, or is not even affected by it, the one infantry won’t be an issue.Like I said in my explanation, Soviet Far East is a good example. There are 13 IPC’s from Soviet Far East to Vologda/Samara. If your strategy is to leave these unguarded for Japan to just take w/1 Inf, then go for it. In my opinion, over the 26 years I’ve played A&A, it’s the wrong stategySince russia can easily stop japan from taking it unless Japan commits more to the front, it really is not an issue. Also, with mongolia, it won’t be unguarded.
Global 2nd edition Q+A ( AAG40.2)
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During round 2, Italy declares war on Russia and attacks Bessarabia. During round 3, Germany moves units into Italy controlled Bessarabia, but has not yet declared war on Russia (therefore collecting 5 IPCs for trade with Russia NO). So on turn 3, can the Soviet Union declare war on Germany and attack Bessarabia which has both Italian and German units on it?
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YG: yes.
Russia can DW on Germany, once at war with Italy.
Then it can Attack Bessarabia, which contains units from both sides. -
@wittmann:
YG: yes.
Russia can DW on Germany, once at war with Italy.
Then it can Attack Bessarabia, which contains units from both sides.Thanks Wittmann!
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…and if Germany moves into Italy controlled Bessarabia, is that considered a DOW on the Soviet Union, or can the Germans collect their NO peace with Russia bonus at the end of their turn?
…also, does the Soviet Union and United States enter the war when London is attacked, or when London in taken?
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When London is captured.
No. Germany does not need to DW, so can collect the 5 NO for Trade with Russia.
On its turn, Russia should DW, then that NO stops,; they can attack German held territories (as well as Italian) and can collect its NO, if neither Germany nor Italy has a Warship in SZ125. (The other stipulations on this NO need to be in place too, of course.)
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@wittmann:
When London is captured.
No. Germany does not need to DW, so can collect the 5 NO for Trade with  Russia.
On its turn, Russia should DW, then that NO stops,; they can attack German held territories (as well as Italian) and can collect its NO, if neither Germany nor Italy has a Warship in SZ125. (The other stipulations on this NO need to be in place too, of course.)
thanks
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Hi we have a problem :)
USA had 10 battleships und start an amphibian assault with 1 man against 10 . I think i read somewhere that in this faq only as much battleships can fire as inf. attacks, but if you read only the rules there is no restriction on it, or is it correct that usa fire 10 battleships and one inf. and the attacked country can only kill the one inf. that landed?
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Hi Surfnrat.
You my get one Bombardment, if only one ground unit is assaulting amphibiously.
If the defending Inf hits, it hits the ground unit. Never a Battleship. -
I think i read somewhere that in this faq only as much battleships can fire as inf. attacks, but if you read only the rules there is no restriction on it
Europe Rulebook, page 18:
The number of ships that can make bombardment attacks is limited to 1 ship per land unit being offloaded from the transports in that coastal territory.
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When Soviet Union is at war, can they move 1 tank during the non-combat phase through northwest Persia into Persia and claim both territories? I thought I read here somewhere that it was possible because Northwest Pesria has no standing army to block the tank and thereby forcing it to stop.
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@Young:
When Soviet Union is at war, can they move 1 tank during the non-combat phase through northwest Persia into Persia and claim both territories? I thought I read here somewhere that it was possible because Northwest Pesria has no standing army to block the tank and thereby forcing it to stop.
no this cannot happen because nw persia is a pro-allied neutral.
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You can blitz pro-the other side neutrals that have no armies, but not pro-your side. The rationale is something about peacefully establishing yourself there - diplomatic relations and stuff.
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The first you can fly over a neutral is in the non-combat movement phase of the turn you attacked that neutral - that is, while Germany cannot fly over Spain during the combat move of this turn (other than to attack it), Germany CAN fly over Spain during the noncombat phase of this turn, because Spain is no longer neutral after Germany attacks Spain in that combat move with other units.
Where does it say that in the rules? If you are attacking Spain then you can fly over it, according to the rules. Where does it stipulate that you cannot fly over it in that combat phase, only non-combat?
Reading “Air units can’t fly over an unfriendly neutral unless they are attacking it” I interpret that as if I attack the neutral then I can also fly over it in combat phase. That’s why I’m wondering if you found further clarification on this than what I saw in the rulebook.
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@IKE:
If you are attacking Spain then you can fly over it, according to the rules. Where does it stipulate that you cannot fly over it in that combat phase, only non-combat?
It does seem you can interpret that rule more than one way. It means that you can fly over it only to attack it - it doesn’t mean you can fly other planes over it at the same time en route to a different destination. We know this because Krieghund has clarified it for us.
You can fly over it in the noncombat phase because at the beginning of the phase it was an enemy territory - it was not a neutral. At the beginning of the combat movement phase, it was neutral.Reading “Air units can’t fly over an unfriendly neutral unless they are attacking it” I interpret that as if I attack the neutral then I can also fly over it in combat phase. That’s why I’m wondering if you found further clarification on this than what I saw in the rulebook.
Yes, Krieghund told us.
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Thanks. That rule is certainly not cut and dry the way the rule-book is written but good to know the intent.
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@IKE:
If you are attacking Spain then you can fly over it, according to the rules. Where does it stipulate that you cannot fly over it in that combat phase, only non-combat?
It does seem you can interpret that rule more than one way. It means that you can fly over it only to attack it - it doesn’t mean you can fly other planes over it at the same time en route to a different destination. We know this because Krieghund has clarified it for us.
You can fly over it in the noncombat phase because at the beginning of the phase it was an enemy territory - it was not a neutral. At the beginning of the combat movement phase, it was neutral.Reading “Air units can’t fly over an unfriendly neutral unless they are attacking it” I interpret that as if I attack the neutral then I can also fly over it in combat phase. That’s why I’m wondering if you found further clarification on this than what I saw in the rulebook.
Yes, Krieghund told us.
But doesn’t the rulebook also say you can’t fly over pro-enemy neutrals unless you’re attacking it? Wouldn’t that mean that you can only fly planes to and from a battle there, not that you can fly planes from elsewhere over it in noncombat?
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But doesn’t the rulebook also say you can’t fly over pro-enemy neutrals unless you’re attacking it? Wouldn’t that mean that you can only fly planes to and from a battle there, not that you can fly planes from elsewhere over it in noncombat?
No. See the rulebook:
@rulebook:
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When a neutral territory is invaded, it’s no longer considered
neutral and immediately becomes part of the alliance
opposing the power that attacked it.
…So in NCM the territory is either captured or hostile.
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@IKE:
If you are attacking Spain then you can fly over it, according to the rules. Where does it stipulate that you cannot fly over it in that combat phase, only non-combat?
It does seem you can interpret that rule more than one way. It means that you can fly over it only to attack it - it doesn’t mean you can fly other planes over it at the same time en route to a different destination. We know this because Krieghund has clarified it for us.
You can fly over it in the noncombat phase because at the beginning of the phase it was an enemy territory - it was not a neutral. At the beginning of the combat movement phase, it was neutral.Reading “Air units can’t fly over an unfriendly neutral unless they are attacking it” I interpret that as if I attack the neutral then I can also fly over it in combat phase. That’s why I’m wondering if you found further clarification on this than what I saw in the rulebook.
Yes, Krieghund told us.
But doesn’t the rulebook also say you can’t fly over pro-enemy neutrals unless you’re attacking it? Wouldn’t that mean that you can only fly planes to and from a battle there, not that you can fly planes from elsewhere over it in noncombat?
calvin…… are you back??? :-o :-D
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Calvin,
Rulebook says the rules for strict neutrals are the same as for unfriendly neutrals, yes.
So it doesn’t matter if it’s an unfriendly neutral or a strict neutral - you can’t fly over it except to attack it, when it is neutral. But after the first combat phase where a neutral is attacked, it is no longer neutral as P@nther pointed out. -
calvin…… are you back??? :-o :-D
I was going to notify you, but true to Bold form, you saw it within 30 minutes :roll: