Transport/Sub Non-Combat Rule

The z102 rule allows USA to sink the German fleet with carrier-based planes post-sealion, even if japan is still Neutral and bombers have nowhere to land (which is unlikely).

The sub can take the hit from bb and cruiser. of course it depends if the axis save their bb or not (if they do I keep the sub and lose dd instead).

so your losses if they scramble generally go carrier sub or dd cruiser fighter tactical bomber.

this is a good attack, bring in an extra fighter from london if you want to.

From new A&A Europe Rule Book, reprint and purchased this week.
Page 30, last paragraph under Air Units: Air units can hit submarines only if a friendly destroyer is in the battle.
Page 32, Submarines: Unit Characteristics: Can’t Be Hit by Air Units: When attacking or defending, hits scored by air units can’t be assigned to submarines unless there is a destroyer that is friendly to the air units in the battle.
Page 32, Destroyers: Unit Characteristics: last paragraph … cancels the following characteristics of all enemy submarines in that battle: Surprise Strike, Submersible, and Can’t Be Hit by Air Units. …

1. Yes.

7. France controls it, until it is taken by an Axis power.

@knp7765:

I have another transport question regarding the “defenseless transports” rule and transports in an attack status:
I know that if transports are defending, once any other warships are sunk and there are attackers left, ALL transports are immediately destroyed.
However, if transports are part of an attack, they are not considered defenseless because they can retreat. So if you have some transports with two warships, let’s say cruisers, and the defender gets 2 hits, then the two cruisers are sunk and the transports can then retreat. However, if the defender were to get 3 or more hits, then some of those transports would also be hit and sunk with the remaining transports being able to retreat.  Is this correct?

Specific example: Germany attacks Volgograd with 1 cruiser and 1 transport. Russia scrambles 2 fighters to SZ 115. Both fighters score hits. So in this case, both the German cruiser AND the German transport are sunk, right? It wouldn’t be sink the cruiser and the transport retreats. The 2nd Russian fighter hit would be applied to the transport since the 1st Russian fighter hit sank the cruiser.
That’s the way we played it and I’m pretty sure I’m right. Any defending hits in excess of attacking warships can be applied to attacking transports.

That’s my understanding as well.

Transports and subs never block movement, even when being attacked.

It only applies to Russia and the US. Japan is at war.China is not part of the WESTERN Allies. Remember: the West consists of the Americas, Western Europe, South Africa, and ANZAC

I have just finished two games of Pacific 40 w/ the alpha+1 setup rules and i need a few answers, really appreciate any help.

Is america supposed to collect all of thier no’s after there at war, europe ones included. I only ask this because i was japan for both games and i completely dominated the allies, and it wasn’t because poor plaiing by the allies they really had no chance.
                                                    Breakdown
Turn 3 japan finishes off the last of the chineese and have thier ships off the coast of mallay.
Turn 5 Japan wipes out india and remaining fleets, there are two now are positioned off of japan and iwa jima.
At this time the allies surrendered because japan now has twice the fleet of america and almost twice the ipc’s. (This game was over before it started and the second game followed the exact same course even with the allied players switching forces.

Is japan to strong with the alpha+1 setup, i know there weaker than oob but it still seams 1 sided to me, i mean it was a total massaccer.

Oh yea i even took french indo-china on the first round both games and didn’t get the ten ipc bonus. I need help to understand how how the allies have a chance