Regarding SZ 110, I got hosed one time on a UK scramble. Usually as Germany, I send 3 fighters, 3 Stukas, 1 bombers and sometimes 1 sub to SZ 110. Our UK player had gotten in the habit of not scrambling in order to save the RAF for future action.
Well, this one game I made the mistake of just assuming UK would not scramble. I sent 2 fighters, 2 Stukas and 1 bomber to SZ 110. The other fighter and Stuka I sent to kill the French fleet in SZ 93. Well, UK taught me a lesson. They scrambled and wiped out my planes. I didn’t even kill all the ships in the channel.
Never made that mistake again.
AAG40 FAQ
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Why would USSR be able to move ANY units into UK when they are not allied?
They shouldn’t!! I’m with you!
No, no ruling on it yet, so presently the USSR and UK can share territories after USSR declares war on Japan R1. :roll:
Get it fixed, please, Krieg! Needs to be in the FAQ. Whatever, if it’s not I’ll make sure that’s the way we play in my games every time (house rule it).
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Can British Ships pass through the Panama Canal before the US is at war? Can axis ships do the same if the US gives permission?
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Can British Ships pass through the Panama Canal before the US is at war? Can axis ships do the same if the US gives permission?
Don’t know why not. If Russian ships can pass through the Danish straits with permission when not at war with Germany, why couldn’t Allies move through Panama? Nothing that says they can’t, is there?
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Want to make sure -
I have paratroopers for the first time, in 1940.
Can I use my Ally’s airbase to launch my infantry from his territory, or must it be from my paratrooping power’s own airbases only?I have paratroopers with Italy and am making sure that I can move infantry to German airbases (West Germany, and France) and launch them as paratroopers (2 per airbase) in future turns. I see no reason that I cannot, but wanted to make sure because the rule doesn’t make it clear that I can, necessarily.
Thanks, Krieg.
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Can British Ships pass through the Panama Canal before the US is at war? Can axis ships do the same if the US gives permission?
Yes, with US permission.
Want to make sure -
I have paratroopers for the first time, in 1940.
Can I use my Ally’s airbase to launch my infantry from his territory, or must it be from my paratrooping power’s own airbases only?You can use your ally’s bases, as long as your ally is at war.
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Can British Ships pass through the Panama Canal before the US is at war? Can axis ships do the same if the US gives permission?
Yes, with US permission.
Want to make sure -
I have paratroopers for the first time, in 1940.
Can I use my Ally’s airbase to launch my infantry from his territory, or must it be from my paratrooping power’s own airbases only?You can use your ally’s bases, as long as your ally is at war.
Does the ally have to be at war with the power you’re attacking with paras?
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You can use your ally’s bases, as long as your ally is at war.
SWEETNESS!! My Italian troopers have some serious possibilities now.
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Does the ally have to be at war with the power you’re attacking with paras?
No. We don’t tell the ally where we’re going, just that we are going. :-)
Krieg said ally has to be AT WAR. That’s all.
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As far as neutral fleets are concerned:
Let’s say the USA declares war on all Axis.
Can I deliberately NOT declare war on the USA with Germany so that I am not blocked by USA surface warships, and so that I can attack a zone with combined UK and USA ships without having to fight the USA ships?
DOW’s are not automatically reciprocal, correct? Is it within the design of the rules to NOT declare war after war is declared on you so that you can keep ignoring their ships? Or is the fact that the USA is at war with Germany all that is necessary so that USA surface warships can block German ships and so that USA ships can help the UK defend?
OK, now I’m pretty sure it’s the latter - that if the USA is at war with Germany (and not vice-versa) that’s all that it takes for the USA ships to stop Germany’s, and to defend its seazone if attacked. Right?
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DOWs are automatically reciprocated.
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DOWs are automatically reciprocated.
Please cite reference. I don’t know where to look.
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DOWs are automatically reciprocated.
Please cite reference. I don’t know where to look.
Common sense
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DOWs are automatically reciprocated.
Please cite reference. I don’t know where to look.
Common sense
That’s not gonna cut it. Don’t put answers on the thread that are just your own personal conclusions, please.
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If India is axis-controlled, the US can take Japanese-held Kwangtung and does it go to the US or back to the UK?
If India is held by axis and UK forces capture Siam, for example, they can’t collect ipc’s from it?
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If India is axis-controlled, the US can take Japanese-held Kwangtung and does it go to the US or back to the UK?
Normal rules - Kwangtung is UK, so if UK East capital is under Axis control, then USA can control Kwangtung, yes.
If India is held by axis and UK forces capture Siam, for example, they can’t collect ipc’s from it?
Right. Same rules as we’ve had since classic. When you capital is under enemy hands, you get no income.
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Declarations of war are reciprocal.
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Declarations of war are reciprocal.
Ah, right on time. You’re the best, Kevin. I was just formulating a UK and ANZAC round 3, and really needed to know that. I check the FAQ, and there’s the answer. Sweet.
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if a true neutrel is invaded do all neutrels become pro-other or will just the invaded neutrel become pro-other i find that all of them becoming pro-other is un balancing and un hislorical. is ther a way ti fix this?
It’s unhistorical but not “unbalancing,” because then Germany would just invade Spain to get to Gibraltar and have better access to the Atlantic from paris
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Yes, unbalancing would be if you could just take over a true neutral with no ramifications.
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Since Russia and USA are technically neutral to start the game, does declaring war on either one bring the other into the war? Like if Japan declares war on Russia, does the USA enter the war? What if Germany and Italy declare war on Russia, does this bring the USA into the war?
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