@genken Might be cool to have a house rule that 1) 1, 2 or 3 the ship is damaged in a way that it moves at half but attacks full or 2) 4, 5, or 6 it is damaged in a what that it moves 2 spaces but attacks with a hit on 1 or 2 vs 4 normally.
AAG40 FAQ
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Read the manual next time, Hobbes!
Lol. Thanks guys, I forgot to read the part related to order of play… just checked the income distribution and skipped the rest.
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Read the manual next time, Hobbes!
Lol. Thanks guys, I forgot to read the part related to order of play… just checked the income distribution and skipped the rest.
:-)
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Is there still no official ruling on USSR entering “European” allied territory when at war with Japan?
Japan and Germany are not allied at the start of the game are they? USSR declaring war with Japan does not force them to declare war on Germany.
UK starts off at war with Germany/Italy, but USSR does not and cannot provoke war with the European Axis until turn 4. UK is not allied with USSR at the start of the game. Just because USSR declares war with Japan, which is at peace with UK, doesn’t automatically ally USSR with UK. Why would USSR be able to move ANY units into UK when they are not allied?
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Why would USSR be able to move ANY units into UK when they are not allied?
They shouldn’t!! I’m with you!
No, no ruling on it yet, so presently the USSR and UK can share territories after USSR declares war on Japan R1. :roll:
Get it fixed, please, Krieg! Needs to be in the FAQ. Whatever, if it’s not I’ll make sure that’s the way we play in my games every time (house rule it).
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Can British Ships pass through the Panama Canal before the US is at war? Can axis ships do the same if the US gives permission?
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Can British Ships pass through the Panama Canal before the US is at war? Can axis ships do the same if the US gives permission?
Don’t know why not. If Russian ships can pass through the Danish straits with permission when not at war with Germany, why couldn’t Allies move through Panama? Nothing that says they can’t, is there?
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Want to make sure -
I have paratroopers for the first time, in 1940.
Can I use my Ally’s airbase to launch my infantry from his territory, or must it be from my paratrooping power’s own airbases only?I have paratroopers with Italy and am making sure that I can move infantry to German airbases (West Germany, and France) and launch them as paratroopers (2 per airbase) in future turns. I see no reason that I cannot, but wanted to make sure because the rule doesn’t make it clear that I can, necessarily.
Thanks, Krieg.
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Can British Ships pass through the Panama Canal before the US is at war? Can axis ships do the same if the US gives permission?
Yes, with US permission.
Want to make sure -
I have paratroopers for the first time, in 1940.
Can I use my Ally’s airbase to launch my infantry from his territory, or must it be from my paratrooping power’s own airbases only?You can use your ally’s bases, as long as your ally is at war.
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Can British Ships pass through the Panama Canal before the US is at war? Can axis ships do the same if the US gives permission?
Yes, with US permission.
Want to make sure -
I have paratroopers for the first time, in 1940.
Can I use my Ally’s airbase to launch my infantry from his territory, or must it be from my paratrooping power’s own airbases only?You can use your ally’s bases, as long as your ally is at war.
Does the ally have to be at war with the power you’re attacking with paras?
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You can use your ally’s bases, as long as your ally is at war.
SWEETNESS!! My Italian troopers have some serious possibilities now.
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Does the ally have to be at war with the power you’re attacking with paras?
No. We don’t tell the ally where we’re going, just that we are going. :-)
Krieg said ally has to be AT WAR. That’s all.
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As far as neutral fleets are concerned:
Let’s say the USA declares war on all Axis.
Can I deliberately NOT declare war on the USA with Germany so that I am not blocked by USA surface warships, and so that I can attack a zone with combined UK and USA ships without having to fight the USA ships?
DOW’s are not automatically reciprocal, correct? Is it within the design of the rules to NOT declare war after war is declared on you so that you can keep ignoring their ships? Or is the fact that the USA is at war with Germany all that is necessary so that USA surface warships can block German ships and so that USA ships can help the UK defend?
OK, now I’m pretty sure it’s the latter - that if the USA is at war with Germany (and not vice-versa) that’s all that it takes for the USA ships to stop Germany’s, and to defend its seazone if attacked. Right?
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DOWs are automatically reciprocated.
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DOWs are automatically reciprocated.
Please cite reference. I don’t know where to look.
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DOWs are automatically reciprocated.
Please cite reference. I don’t know where to look.
Common sense
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DOWs are automatically reciprocated.
Please cite reference. I don’t know where to look.
Common sense
That’s not gonna cut it. Don’t put answers on the thread that are just your own personal conclusions, please.
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If India is axis-controlled, the US can take Japanese-held Kwangtung and does it go to the US or back to the UK?
If India is held by axis and UK forces capture Siam, for example, they can’t collect ipc’s from it?
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If India is axis-controlled, the US can take Japanese-held Kwangtung and does it go to the US or back to the UK?
Normal rules - Kwangtung is UK, so if UK East capital is under Axis control, then USA can control Kwangtung, yes.
If India is held by axis and UK forces capture Siam, for example, they can’t collect ipc’s from it?
Right. Same rules as we’ve had since classic. When you capital is under enemy hands, you get no income.
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Declarations of war are reciprocal.
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Declarations of war are reciprocal.
Ah, right on time. You’re the best, Kevin. I was just formulating a UK and ANZAC round 3, and really needed to know that. I check the FAQ, and there’s the answer. Sweet.
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