Noob question. Does a player collect income the same turn that a capital is liberated if they are the ones that liberated the capital? I think the answer is yes just want a confirmation. Thanks.
To further clarify, Germany may move out of the sea zone in combat movement even if its ships end up in a friendly sea zone. Moving to avoid combat in this situation is considered a valid combat move.
axis_roll
I understand that…(and it was funny) I was just taking the opportunity to bust on myself… :-D I could have phrased the question a little more intelligently…
i don’t think anyone here is rude at all. Actually, everyone takes the time to answer all of our “newbie” questions without any complaints… It’s a great forum…
:-D
Subs rule!
Just wish I could afford to buy more for Germany.
I playtested a strat in the on-line gaming on the TripleA site where I defended Western Europe and bought an IC there on G2. The whole purpose of the IC in western Europe was to place subs in the 3 adjacent sea zones as needed! Specifically to keep UK from loading up troops and going into the Baltic to invade. It also played havoc in the western Med for allied shipping there as well.
Really competant allied players, with a great amount of patience usually overcame this expensive defensive strat. But others were so frustrated by it, that they usually capitulated by turn 7 or 8. :-D
It happened a lot in Classic, but in Revised there’s almost always at least two ways to get where you want, usually 3 or 4. (I think the only stumblers are Egypt/Trans-Jordan and Sinkiang/China.)
Where’s the unguarded territory if he blocked off the Baltic? What if there are no troops or very little troops in W. Europe? You may be infinitley efficient when you can bombard a territory, but when the territory doesn’t have many or any troops to bombard, or you are blocked, you are many turns behind in amassing the necessary troops to attack.