I believe that if the fort is activated (an amphib), that any attacking unit could/would be taken as a causality including units that came from adjacent land territories and air units (but not 100% sure). Question for Variable
If a fortress can defend any attack, any casualty can be chosen. If it can only defend against a sea zone, a casualty that is amphib assaulting must be chosen. These are like Atlantic Wall guns. Will add clarification.
OK’ so if the fort defends the sea only, fort hits would be applied to the amphib units only (first), but any defending ground units (including inf that get a +2 boost) that get a hit must still be applied right, to any unit the attacker chooses (first to amphib units if still available, then to units coming from adjacent land territories, or air).
No, this applies only to the Fortifications dice. Any units in the territory cause casualties as normal. If the attacker wishes to lose a unit from an adjacent territory hit by the infantry in your example, that’s fine.
Example:
Germany attacks Oslo with 2 inf (by transport), one inf from adjacent land territory, and 1 ftr (from where ever). Oslo defends with fort (2 dice at 5), and 1 inf (1 dice at 6 because of +2 from fort). Oslo rolls all 5’s in the first round of battle (all hits). The fort hits go to the 2 amphib inf w/o a doubt. The hit from the def inf (although it only hit because of the +2 from the fort) is still applied right. Either to the inf coming from adjacent land territory, or to the fighter (attackers choice). That 3rd hit isn’t lost because the inf is tied to the fort because it got +2 or something is it?
Not lost. See above.
More questions for Variable in blue:
If Spain goes pro axis, I’m a little unclear on how you would activate/assume control of the fleet off of Seville. Before (5.0 rules) the axis power that took control of Seville would gain control of the Spanish fleet (activate the fleet, and able to move the non coastal ships next turn). Now do you get the fleet for taking control of the territory of Seville (like before), or does activating the capital (NCM into Madrid) now allow you to get the Spanish ships. I hope it is how it was before because it allowed Germany to NCM in to Madrid to claim ground units, but Italy could activate Seville to gain control of the navy if that is what the axis wanted to do.
similar as above:
If any territory of Spain is attacked by either side when it is a strict neutral, the rest of the Spanish territories become pro the other side. So say the US only captures Barcelona, doesn’t take Seville, or Madrid (capital). That would make both Seville and Madrid pro axis territories. In order for the axis to take control of the Spanish fleet off the coast of Seville (sz36) do they need to activate Madrid (capital), or Seville territory adjacent to the fleet?
WB
I think I can answer both of these pretty easily. First, when Spain is Strict Neutral, any attack on any of it’s territories result in all Spanish territories turning Pro Neutral toward the other side. The navy would have to be rolled for if the capital were captured by attack (aggression, not activation). This is like the Vichy rule in a sense. While Spain is Pro-Axis, any activation move into any Spanish territory by Axis powers results in all spanish units being absorbed by that power.
OK, think I got it. So your saying that if Spain goes pro axis (either through an event, or direct allied attack), if Germany or Italy enter any Spanish territory they would claim all Spanish units from all 3 Spanish territories and the fleet.
Correct.
Example:
Germany has Paris, and captures Leningrad in the combat move phase (event that makes Spain pro Axis). If in the German NCM (of the same turn) a German unit enters Barcelona, then the units in all three Spanish territories become absorbed by Germany including the Spanish fleet.
Correct.
