So I was playing a global game recently (2nd edition) and a question came up about taking friendly territories of fallen allied players that had their capitals lost (Like France) while I was America. This player (who had never played global before) assumed that is an allied player lost his capital the territories he possesed would remain his until his capital was liberated or an enemy invaded (ie America couldn’t take places like Morroco and Algieria for IPC values while Paris is under axis control). We looked in the game book and no explicit answer was shown. So let me ask you, can a friendly power sieze control of a other friendlies power while it’s capital is lost and thus gain those territories IPC value until the capital is liberated. I am sorry this is probably a really stupid question but we couldn’t figure it out in the game. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you.
Ill give you an example: Germany has paris, and italy has taken morocco a few turns later. The US soon joins the war and attacks morocco. The US wins and claims morocco as one of his own territories. (If Paris was not occupied, morocco would turn back to french) If US later liberates paris, then all allied controlled originally french territories will turn french instantly. (Any units in those territories will stay the same, they wont become french)
If morocco was never taken by an axis power, it would never turn american or british or whomever.
ghr2 is right. French territories stay French unless an ally liberates them from Axis control.
The only exception is the former Dutch colonies (Sumatra, Java, Celebes, Dutch New Guinea, Suriname). At the start of the game Holland has fallen, but there is a special treaty that allows UK or ANZAC to take those over by landing a ground unit on them. Allied air units can land on them but not take them over (just like they can land on french territories). America can also land air or ground units on them, but can only take them over if liberating them from Axis control.
u can also land air units on them as uk or anzac on the same turn u take them from the dutch.
Another Example with Question:
UK England is controlled by Germany, and the Italians take West India followed by UK Pacific taking it back…That means UK Pacific gets those IPC until UK England is liberated?
Another Example with Question:
UK England is controlled by Germany, and the Italians take West India followed by UK Pacific taking it back…That means UK Pacific gets those IPC until UK England is liberated?
In the global game, Western Canada on the pacific board goes to UK Europe econ and West India goes to Pacific econ.
There’s no difference between UK pacific units and UK europe units. It’s UK that takes it back, not UK pacific or UK Europe. But if you recaptured Persia as UK, for example, no one would collect income for it if London was occupied as it’s a London econ territory, NOT a pacific econ territory.
Another Example with Question:
UK England is controlled by Germany, and the Italians take West India followed by UK Pacific taking it back…That means UK Pacific gets those IPC until UK England is liberated?
In the global game, Western Canada on the pacific board goes to UK Europe econ and West India goes to Pacific econ.
There’s no difference between UK pacific units and UK europe units. It’s UK that takes it back, not UK pacific or UK Europe. But if you recaptured Persia as UK, for example, no one would collect income for it if London was occupied as it’s a London econ territory, NOT a pacific econ territory.
In out of box, WIndia is still counted on the europe side. So that money goes to europe UK, period. In the recent versions (including 2nd edition) that money goes to pacific UK, Period.
As you say, in OOB 2nd edition, West India is Pacific (but not OOB 1st edition). But more than likely all answers at this point will be addressed as a 2nd edition question, unless someone specifically says OOB rules for first edition.
