A lot of posters seemed stunned at this scenario, never scene it ever happen or even could happen. Now that I mulled it over last night and looked at the rules and so forth it is very obvious to me why no one has ever scene this scenario. Because the scenario makes no logical sense.
Italy DOW on Russia and moves in 2 tanks into Eastern Poland.
Russia is now at war with Italy and can DOW on Germany at the start of their next turn, turn 3.
Germany on Turn 3 does not DOW on Russia and just non combats into Eastern Poland.
Russia at the start of Turn 3 DOW on Germany and off we go.There is no logical reason why Russia would not DOW on Germany at the start of Turn 3, none.
Heck you could argue that it makes no logical sense that Germany did not DOW on Russia at the start of G3 since Italy brought Russia into the war and Russia WILL DOW on Germany on R3.
Hi PainState,
From my perspective, if I was planning on doing a G3 Barbarossa AND I wanted to drive towards the south, then yes, it makes sense to not DOW. My stack will be together except for the minimum required mobile units and maybe 1 AAA in Poland so Russia doesn’t attack Poland to get their NO for occupying an Axis territory. But E. Poland will be real strong because the German air will be there and maybe bombers will also be in range of a raid on the Moscow factory. Also, 5 IPCs is more income than I’d probably get as Germany on the 1st turn.
There are a few disadvantages of course. 1, Russian blockers can’t be attacked. 2, the Scandinavian units are behind. But for me that’s ok, I just use them to lay siege anyways. I never expect to get Moscow on turn 6 anymore. I assume that the UK/Anzac and that lone French fighter are going to get to Moscow.Â
Rules clarification
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Is it possible to load and unload troops from a transport in a sea zone that your opponent could “potentially” scramble from?
I understand an unescorted load/unload would be impossible but because scramble orders are given AFTER combat shouldn’t you be able to load and unload before the opponent gives the order?
The example is thus: Can German transports move into sz110 with a German fleet and load units from Holland/Belgium and Unload to UK? I know the UK has the Option to make the SZ hostile if they scramble and this would prevent a loading right? But Isn’t the German load/unload occurring before the scramble?
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The scramble would not prevent loading in the sea zone, but it would prevent offloading unless the scarmbled units are cleared. Scrambling is done at the end of the Combat Move phase (or at the beginning of the Conduct Combat phase in OOB), but the rules specify that scrambled units may defend against an amphibious assault with or without defending sea units.
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All combat movement, to include loading and unloading transports, must be declared before a defender determines which aircraft they are going to scramble and where, if applicable. Once the defender has declared what they are scrambling, the sea zone must be cleared before the amphibious assault occurs. To answer your question, yes. The German load/unload does occur before scramble and you can load in the SZ where scrambling might occur.
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Sorry Krieghund, didn’t mean to duplicate your post, you must have posted as I was typing mine.
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The scramble would not prevent loading in the sea zone, but it would prevent offloading unless the scarmbled units are cleared. Scrambling is done at the end of the Combat Move phase (or at the beginning of the Conduct Combat phase in OOB), but the rules specify that scrambled units may defend against an amphibious assault with or without defending sea units.
Does the choice to launch kamikazes operate on the same principle as the choice to scramble planes?
I played a game recently wherein a player refused me the option to launch kamikazes on the basis that he didn’t move any surface warships (just transports) into the sea zone adjacent to the Philippines, which he was amphibiously assaulting.
As I understand it:
- kamikazes are launched in response to attacks on certain sea zones
- an amphibious assault can only proceed if a battle for a sea zone succeeds
- launching a kamikaze initiates a battle for a sea zone
- transports are not valid targets for kamikazes
Sooo… What happens in this situation?
Can I throw a kamikaze away just to thwart the invasion attempt on the Philippines?
Or, because the transport is not a valid target for the kamikaze, does the transport ‘win’ the sea battle, and the amphibious assault proceed as intended?
Thanks in advance, MIR
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Kamikaze alone won’t prevent an amphibious assault. All they will do is prevent bombardment.
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Kamikaze alone won’t prevent an amphibious assault. All they will do is prevent bombardment.
Allow me to refine my question:
Do kamikazes have the same trigger conditions as scrambled planes?
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In the Alpha rules, yes. In the box rules, they are triggered by combat movement into the sea zone.
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Just as a side note Make_It_Round, in alpha if you had a Japanese sub in the sz he couldn’t do an amphib w/transports only. This would force him to bring in surface ship(s) to escort the transports. Then you could use your sub & kami’s to try and sink his surface ship(s) if he still does the amphib. You probably only have a destroyer as a target, but hey makes him think.





