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What happens when a french troop is on a territory that is turned vichy

Global War 1936

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Board 3659
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I am discussing this with The veteran in the comment section of the commonwealth turn of operation skyhook. What happens here?
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insaneHoshi
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I assuming you are talking about the vichy/FF roll off when france surrenders?

It becomes a Vichy unit. Same if it become FF.
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Board 3659 @insaneHoshi
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@insanehoshi What’s special about the french foreign legeion?
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insaneHoshi @Board 3659
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@board-3659 Nothing?

FF = Free France btw
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Trig @Board 3659
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@board-3659 Nothing with the Vichy rolls. It just doesn’t suffer desert penalties.
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Board 3659 @Trig
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@trig oh ok
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TheVeteran @Board 3659
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@board-3659 you are funny bro: i knew this answer from the get go.
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Board 3659 @TheVeteran
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@theveteran I wasn’t sure in the rules if it meant just Asian territories or all of them when it becomes Vichy
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Lend-leasing of a French Foreign Legion?

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• • • HBG GW Enthusiast

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The FAQ has been updated:
Q: Can you Lend-lease Militia? Colonial Infantry?

A: Militia: Yes.
A: Colonial Infantry: No

Looks like I was correct about Colonial Infantry, but Caesar-Seriona was right about Militia.
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Attacks on a Territory by Two Powers Not Allowed to Attack Together

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@trig

FAQ has been updated.

Q: Can two nations that share turns attack the same land zone if they are

forbidden to attack together per 6.1 (i.e. USA and minor power KMT)?

A: No.

Of course this doesn’t solve the issue of say, vichy france and Germany attacking the same free french zone, as thats not forbidden in 6.1 (as far as i can tell)
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• • • David '06

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@trig @Chris_Henry Thanks!
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Vichy French Colonies

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• • • Ghetty

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@trig Wow. I never would have noticed the black center on those roundels. Thank you for that. And the links. And the explanation. (The Mutawakkilite Kingdom of Yemen went from possibly the most boring flag of all time to a pretty cool one in one decade!)
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Vichy rolls

Global War 1936
• • • Adalwolf

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@insanehoshi said in Vichy rolls:

@caesar-seriona

If you read this objectively, any player with a double digit IQ knows by the wording this means that Aquitaine is there for Free French home territory. I pointed out that if the Allies get careless in this situation, Vichy can push them out making it Vichy, then if they land in the territory just north of it, Vichy can then push them out, and if the Allies land east of that, Vichy now just shielded Paris outright from the Allies forcing them to either declare war of Vichy or land in the Low Countries.

Why is this a problem? Just DoW on Vichy.

Furthermore, I don’t see how Vichy can even attack allied units and thus “Push them out” since Vichy can only ever attack free france. You may be referring to the " 14.4.5 Internal French Conflict Vichy Conflict" reference on their Vichy Reference Sheet. But considering that 14.4.5 does no longer exist in the rulebook, odds are this is simply out of date.

Even then, its fairly clear that Rules as Intended (RAI) is that Vichy arnt allowed to show up it aquitaine, wave a piece of paper at the landing nations, and force them back to England; Why would anyone try to argue that this is the correct way to play the game?

Thank you for pointing out that 14.4.5 has been removed from the rulebook. As that section contained important information, was it relocated or clarified elsewhere? How is Vichy, attacking a French territory containing Allied units, now supposed to be handled?
J

Vichy Fly Over

Global War 1936
• • • JbuckBuddy

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@GeneralHandGrenade Ah I see, and yes i placed Le resistance in Paris upon liberation but the part I want to be clear on is if the other allied units have to vacate paris once vichy chooses to attack, or are they forced to withdraw only if vichy defeats the French forces. If there are no french units and only British or American units in a french land zone, is vichy able to move in, force a withdrawal and take it, or can they only attack french forces?

The reason i inquired is because the German player in my game is planning to attack Paris(US,British & French units occupy it) with Germany and Vichy if able. They would move on the same turn of course but not attack together, but say the german’s attack Paris and all the French units are killed(they are militia and AAA) leaving only British or American units, once vichy attacked would they be forced to vacate or would vichy be unable to move in since there are no French forces?

Wanted to be sure before I went ahead. Any help would be awesome. Thanks.
D

French response to Japanese Aggression?

Global War 1936
• • • Dran Black

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Interesting takes from you both. This could lose focus, but I do like historical discussion :)

I think you both have valid points on the historical aspects vs. game play realities.

Britain’s and France’s alliance, at least in the form we know it as it concerns WWII, stemmed in 1938-1939 after the Munich Conference. The alliance was really geared towards stemming German/Italian expansions in Europe. I don’t think Japan/Asia was really much of a thought or concern. That probably stems from a number of things, a couple being a contemporary belief in Japanese/Asian inferiority (even with Japanese military success in the recent past), as well as being largely unaware that Japan would eventually harbor the ill will to fight the Allies. They didn’t join the Axis until 1940, remember.

That’s all to say that I agree with GHG, in a historical context, that Britain and France were more concerned about issues closer to home.

All that said, from a gaming perspective, I do agree with Dran here. In a hypothetical reality where Japan preemptively assaulted the British Empire in Hong Kong, Malay, Burma, India, etc., I think it’s very obvious France would have gone on high alert, fully realizing their Indochinese colonies might all of a sudden be in jeopardy. We of course cannot know this, since Indochina was occupied after a Vichy government took control. But I think reason dictates there would have been a heightening of fears in the French Empire.

In that regard, it would have been nicer to have seen a bit more of a peacetime income increase for a situation like this, I agree. But at least there is that +1 IPP for Japan attacking a Neutral UK.
J

Question about Vichy

Global War 1936
• • • JustLuthor

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@Caesar-Seriona I think you need to re-read the rule, it does not say you can only send to one nation. What the rule states is that, when you do Lend Lease to a nation, you can send that nation one unit or up to half that nations income. But you can do that same process multiple times.

Language from the book here:

7.8 Lend-Lease: During the Production Phase nations may lend money (IPPs) or military
equipment to other Major and Minor Powers.
Requirements: A nation can lend-lease to a nation under the following conditions:
(a) The receiving nation is at war with a Major Power or,
(b) A special circumstance (e.g. Spanish Civil War) allows a
nation to lend-lease.
A nation may not lend-lease to itself or to Aligned minors (since
they are technically also part of that nation). Britain cannot lendlease to the FEC or ANZAC.
Declaration: A player must announce his intention to lend-lease at
the start of the turn. You may lend either;
(a) Up to half the receiving nation’s current income in IPPs (not
counting bonus income), rounding fractions up. Or,
(b) One military unit. Such a unit must be produced at a factory in the Home Nation
specifically for the purpose of lending. You may not lend-lease units already on the
board.

It does not specify that you can only Lend Lease to a single nation. So that might help clear it up a bit. The USA can Lend Lease to China, USSR, UK, and Free France all in the same turn if it wants to, for example.

I guess I still don’t follow the logic on allowing Free France a free reign to take out Vichy though. I’m not saying the money from Vichy makes or breaks Germany winning, but it just doesn’t make any sense to allow the Allies to just take all the territory essentially for free while Germany can’t do anything about it. But we may have to just agree to disagree on that one. :grinning:

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